pg-law-cet-previous-paper-2014

PG-LAWCET 2014 –                   

Take Practice Test based on this paper

  1. The profounder of the interest theory is

(1) Irving    (2) Pollock  (3) Austin   (4) Hegal

 

  1. The jural correlation of immunity is

(1) Power    (2) Disability        (3)No Claim         (4) Claim

  1. Which of the following statement is not true?

(1) Possession is a nine point of law

(2) Possession is an evidence of ownership

(3) Possession is protected till someone else proved a better title in himself

(4) Possession once lost can be regained

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  1. Who said that: “All constitutions are the heirs of past as well as the testers of future?

(1) Keeton   (2) Jefferson         (3) Jennings                   (4) Dowling

 

  1. The word ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble to the Constitution of India by

(1) 44th Amendment       (2) 49th Amendment       (3) 42nd Amendment                     (4) 46th Amendment

Q.1 – Ans.1 |Q 2 – Ans. 2 | Q 3 –  Ans.4 |  Q 4 – Ans 3 |Q 5 Ans.3|

 

  1. Which article confers very wide powers on the Supreme Court ‘to do complete justice’?

(1) Article 142(1)Ans.(2) Article 226         (3) Article 32        (4) Article 246(2)

  1. Which of the following article gives teeth to the fundamental rights and makes them justiciable?

(1) Article 13        (2) Article 14        (3) Article 21        (4) Article 15

 

  1. Who said in his speech in the Constituent Assembly that: “ By Parliamentary democracy we mean ‘one man one vote’ “?

(1) Sardar Vallabhai Patel       (2) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar    (4) Dr.Rajendra Prasad

 

  1. Which article obligates the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid to every citizen of India?

(1) Article 39(1)   (2) Article 39 (f)   (3) Article 48 A    (4) Article 39 A

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  1. A Money Bill must originate in

(1) Ministry of Finance  (2) Legislative Assembly                   (3) Legislative Council (4) Ministry of Home Affairs  (MHA)

 

  1. Utilitarian school of jurisprudence is an admixture of

(1) Role of morality and legal norms (2) Ideals outside the law and natural         law (3) Moral analysis and juristic thoughts  (4) Natural and positive law

 

Q6 – Ans.1| Q7 – Ans.1 | Q8 – Ans.3 | Q9 – Ans.4 |  Q10 – Ans.2 | Q11 – Ans4

 

 

 

  1. Justinian Code is compiled by

(1) Jeremy Bentham       (2) Sir Henry Maine       (3) Justinian                   (4) Lord Macaulay

 

  1. Roscoe Pound propounded the concept of

(1) Social Commitment  (2) Social Solidarity       (3) Social Engineering          (4) Social Utilitarian

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  1. Match the following

(A) Sociological School           (1) Kant

(B) Historical School               (2) Savigny

(C) Philosophical School                  (3) Roscoe Pound

(D) Analytical School              (4) Austin

 

A       B       C       D

(1)              3        2        1        4

(2)     4        1        2        3

(3)     1        2        3        4

(4)     4        3        2        1

 

  1. Salmond divided the law into two classes

(1) Codified and Uncodified    (2) Private and Public    (3) Formal and Material

(4) Formal and Informal

Q12 – Ans.3 | Q13 – Ans.3 | Q14 – Ans.1 | Q15– Ans.3

 

  1. Which one is not essential for providing custom?

(1) Peaceable enjoyment          (2) Consistency    (3) Written  (4) Certainty

 

  1. Meaning of the word ‘Volkgeist’ is

(1) The bunch of customs                 (2) The series of judge made laws     (3) General consciousness of the people    (4) Laws prevailing in country

 

  1. A’s right to enjoy his legally possessed land is a

(1) Right to land   (2) Moral Right    (3) Right in rem    (4) Right in personam

 

  1. What do Rights in re-aliena mean?

(1) Right in the things of others        (2) Right in one’s own thing    (3) Rights relating to property     (4) Rights to receive damages

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  1. The principle of ‘Social Solidarity’ was propounded by

(1) Duguit   (2) Roscoe Pound (3) Savigny (4) Bentham

 

  1. Which one of the following rights is a right in re-propia?

(1) Easement        (2) License  (3) Lessee’s Right (4) Ownership

 

  1. Who is considered as father of analytical school?

(1) Bentham                   (2) Austin   (3) Blackstone      (4) Roscoe Pound

| Q16 – Ans.3 | Q17 – Ans. | Q18 – Ans.3 | Q19 _ Ans1 | Q20 _ Ans.1

| Q21 – Ans.4 | Q22 _ Ans.1 |

 

 

  1. Social engineering means

(1) Balance between the interest in society

(2) Act of giving priority to social goals exclusively

(3) Social interest must give way to individual interest

(4) All interest nourish themselves in organized society

 

  1. The most acceptable theory of punishment in the modern world

(1) Reformative theory  (2) Deterrent theory       (3) Preventive Theory           (4) Retributive theory

 

  1. The term “law declared by Supreme Court” means?

(1) Ratio decedendi of a decision      (2) Obitar dictum of a decision                          (3) Ratio decedendi as well as obitar dictum of a decisions (4) None

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  1. The existence of legislation is

(1) De-jure            (2) De-facto           (3) Both of them             (4) None of these

 

  1. Theory of Unjust Enrichment was propounded by

(1) Dr.Winfield     (2) Blackstone      (3) Mansfield                  (4) G.W. Paton

 

  1. According to which of the following Amendment Acts Article 2 of the Indian Constitution was amended?

(1) 5th Amendment Act  (2) 6th Amendment Act  (3) 7th Amendment Act        (4) 3rd Amendment Act

Q23- Ans.1 |  Q24 – Ans.1 | Q.25 – Ans.3 | Q26- Ans.1 |  Q27 – Ans.3

| Q28 – Ans.3

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is/are the correct explanation of Parliamentary Democracy?

(1) Representation of the People

(2) Responsible Government

(3) Accountability of the Council of Ministers to the Legislature

(4) All are correct

 

  1. Which of the following Amendment Acts provides that even during emergencies, the enforcement of rights under Articles 20 and 21 of the Indian Constitution cannot be suspended?

(1) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976                            (2) 44th Amendment Act, 1978                (3) 61st Amendment Act                                   (4) 34th Amendment Act, 1966

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  1. Taxation is a/an __________ power of the State and there is no fundamental right to be immune from taxation.

(1) Sovereign        (2) Statutory                  (3) Authoritative  (4) Administration

 

32.”The right to freedom of Speech and Expression includes the right to receive and impart information” was held in which case law-

(1) Dinesh Trivedi, MP vs. Union of India (1997) 4 SCC 306

(2) State of U.P. vs. Raj Narain, (1975) 4 SCC 428

(3) S.P.Gupta vs. Union of India, (1981) Suppl.SCC 87 at 273

(4) Secy, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India v. Cricket Association of Bengal, (1992) 2 SCC 161

 

Q29 –Ans.4 |  Q30 – Ans.2 | Q31- Ans.1 | Q32 – Ans.4

 

  1. Though ‘right to health’ is not explicitly enshrined under the fundamental rights, but the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that “right to healthcare” is an essential ingredient under Article 21 of the Constitution. It was held in the following case:

(1) Pt. Parmanand Kumar vs. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 20

(2) DK Joshi vs. State of UP, JT 2000(5) SC 211

(3) Shantistar Builders vs. N.K.Totame, (1990) 1 SCC 520

(4) Gobind vs. State of M.P., (1975) 2 SCC 148

 

  1. Which Schedule under Article 246 contains the three lists elaborating a scheme of allocation of powers and functions between the Central and States?

(1) Schedule First           (2) Schedule Eight                   (3) Schedule Eleventh          (4) Schedule Seventh

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  1. Which article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes?

(1) Article 15(4)   (2) Article 16(4)   (3) Article 16(4-A)                   (4) Article 16(4-B)

 

  1. In which of the following the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that “right to life: does not include “right to die”?

(1) Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab (1996)

(2) P. Rathinam vs. Union of India (1994)

(3) State of Maharasthra vs. Maruti Sripati (1987)

(4) Gokalnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)

| Q33. – Ans.1 Q34 – Ans.4 | Q35 – Ans.3 | Q36 – Ans.1

 

 

  1. Curative petition can be filed in

(1) Supreme Court only                                       (2) High Court only

(3) Supreme Court as well as High CourtAns.(4) Any Court

 

  1. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is

(1) Appellate only                   (2) Original only   (3) Original as well as Appellate     (4) Original, Appellate and Advisory

 

  1. S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, 1994 AIR 1918 is related to

(1) National Emergency under Article 352

(2) President Rule in State under Article 356

(3) Financial emergency under Article 360

(4) None of the above

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  1. The status of Board of Control for Cricket for Cricket in India (BCCI) as State, was discusses in the case of?

(1) Northern India Caterers Ltd. vs. State of Punjab 1967

(2) Zee Telefilms Ltd vs.union of India 2005

(3) Bengal Cricket Association vs. Union of India

(4) Zee Sports Ltd. vs. State of Punjab 2010

 

  1. Tender notification on the official website of government department is

(1) An offer          (2) Invitation to offer     (3) Acceptance

(4) Neither an offer nor an Invitation to offer

Q37 – Ans.1 | Q38 – Ans.4 | Q39 – Ans.2 | Q40 – Ans.2 | Q41 – Ans.2 |

 

  1. Privity of Contract means

(1) Only parties to the contract can sue each other

(2) Beneficiary of the contract can sue the parties

(3) Parties to the contract can sue the third party

(4) Both (2) and (3)

 

  1. Discharge of contract can happen with

(1) Frustration                                   (2) Performance of Contract

(3) Impossibility of Performance      (4) All of the above

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  1. A lunatic person can enter into an agreement

(1) During Lucid intervals                 (2) Cannot enter into an agreement

(3) Can enter only social agreement  (4) All of the above

 

  1. ‘X’ made an offer to buy ‘Y’s house for stipulated price. ‘Y’ accepted it and communicated his acceptance to ‘Z’, a third party.

Which of the following derivations is correct?

(1) Y’s acceptance resulted in an agreement

(2) Y’s acceptance did not result in any agreement

(3) Y’s acceptance resulted in a contract

(4) Y’s acceptance resulted in a promise

Q42 – Ans.1 | Q43 – Ans.4 | Q44 – Ans.1 | Q45 – Ans.2 |

 

46.’A’ and ‘B’ were negotiating the sale of a plot of land belonging to ‘A’ over telephone. They finalized a price for the plot and ‘A’ told ‘B’ to send him a letter confirming that ‘B’ wished to buy the plot for the price finalized. ‘B’ told ‘A’ over the telephone that he would buy ‘A’s plot. Is ‘A’ bound by ‘B’s acceptance over the telephone?

Options:

(1) A is not bound by B’s acceptance, since it was not made in the mode prescribed by A, that is by sending a letter.

(2) A is not bound by B’s acceptance, since B did not make it in a reasonable time.

(3) A is bound by B’s acceptance since the acceptance was communicated to A

(4) A is bound by B’s acceptance, since the telephone is a more reliable and speedy means of communication than a letter.

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  1. The subject of International Law are:

(1) States only

(2) Only International Organizations

(3) States, International Organizations and Individual

(4) United Nations

 

  1. Past consideration is valid in

(1) Only in England                          (2) Only in India

(3) Both in England & India             (4) Neither England nor India

Q46 – Ans.1 | Q47 – Ans.3 | Q48 – Ans.2 |

 

 

  1. A makes an offer to B on 10th by a letter which reaches B on 12th. B posts letter of acceptance which reaches A on 16th. The communication of acceptance is complete as against A on :

(1) 12th        (2) 14th        (3) 16th        (4) 14th and 16th together

 

  1. A’s son forged B’s name to promissory note. B under threat of prosecuting A’s son obtains a bond from A for the amount of the forged note, if B sues on this bond, the court :

(1) Has no objection in this case                 (2) Must not set aside the bond

(3) May set aside the bond                         (4) None of the stated above

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  1. Is there us error in consensus, the agreement is

(1) Void      (2) Voidable                   (3) Illegal    (4) Not effected to all

 

  1. Under Section 74 Indian Contract Act, 1872 the court award damages

(1) Less than the amount stated in the contract

(2) Equal to the amount stated in the contract

(3) More than the amount stated in the contract

(4) None stated here

 

  1. Novation of a contract means

(1) The renewal of original contract

(2) Substitution of new contract in place of original contract

(3) Cancellation of contract

(4) Alteration of contract

Q49 – Ans.2 | Q50 – Ans.3 | Q51 – Ans.1 | Q52 – Ans.3 | Q53 – Ans.2 |

 

 

  1. S and P go into a shop. S says to the shopkeeper, C. “Let P have the goods, and if he does not pay you, I will. “ This is

(1) Contract of indemnity                 (2) Wagering agreement

(3) Contract of guarantee                  (4) Quasi-Contract

 

  1. The sources of International Law are provided under

(1) Article 34 of the Statute of International Court of Justice

(2) Article 38 of the Charter of the United Nations

(3) Article 34 of the Charter of the United Nations

(4) Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice

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  1. The present sitting Judge of International Court of Justice elected form India is

(1) Justice Dalbir Bhandari               (2) Justice Kumar Chandra Swamy

(3) Justice SS Nijjar                          (4) Justice Nagendra Singh

 

  1. The Universal Declaration of Human Right was adopted in the year?

(1) 1976      (2) 1966      (3) 1950      (4) 1948

 

  1. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1)  The UN charter makes for compulsory membership

(2) The UN charter grants to all states a right to membership

(3) The membership of UN is qualified and limited

(4) The UN charter does not make any distinction between the original and subsequent members

Q54 – Ans.3 | Q55 – Ans.4 | Q56 – Ans.1 | Q57 – Ans.4 | Q58 – Ans.4 |

 

  1. Which of the following is principal organ of the United Nations?

(1) Human Rights Committee                     (2) Economic and Social Council

(3) International Labour Organization                 (4) International Law Association

 

  1. The Secretary General of the United Nations is appointed by the :

(1) General Assembly              (2) Security Council

(3) General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council

(4) Secretary

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  1. Decisions of the General Assembly on important question shall be made by:

(1) Simple majority                  (2) Simple majority present voting

(3) Two-thirds majorityAns.(4) Two-thirds majority present and voting

 

  1. Who called International Law as the vanishing point of Jurisprudence?

(1) Holland           (2) Austin             (3) Vattel              (4) Puffendorff

 

  1. Which of the following doctrine serves as the binding force of International Law?

(1) dirittointernazionale                     (2) Pacta et edicta

(3) Pactasuntservanda                       (4) Internationals Recht

 

  1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Public International Law regulates relations among states which includes individuals also.

(2) Private International Law determines as to which law will apply in a case having a foreign element

(3) Private International Law is a part of Municipal Law

(4) Private International Law is same for all the State.

  1. Who initiated the concept of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) at Geneva Session of U.N. Committee of Peaceful uses of Sea-bed and Ocean Floor Beyond the Limits of National Jurisdiction in 1972?

(1) U.S.A              (2) Kenya             (3) China              (4) India

  1. According to Convention of 1982, what would be the area of Contiguous Zone beyond territorial sea?

(1) 22 miles          (2) 12 km             (3) 12 miles          (4) 13 miles

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  1. The permanent Court of International Justice was established with the provisions of

(1) Article 14 of the Covenant of League of Nations

(2) Statute of the International Law Commission

(3) Second Hague Conference. 1907

(4) Chapter 14 of the U.N. Charter

 

  1. Which Latin maxim represents that : ‘There is an implied clause in every treaty that provides that the agreement is binding only so long as the material circumstances on which it rests remain unchanged?

(1) Pactasuntservanda                                (2) pactaterties nee nocent

(3) Statunascendi                                        (4) Rebus sic stantibus

Q61 – Ans.4 | Q62 – Ans.1 | Q63 – Ans.3 | Q64 – Ans.4 | Q65 – Ans.2 | Q66 – Ans.3 | Q67 – Ans.1 | Q68 – Ans.4 |

 

69.Non- Permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are elected for a period of

(1) 7 yearsAns.(2) 3 years                 (3) 2 years            (4) None of the above

 

  1. In which case the Supreme Court observed: “Just as strike is a weapon available to the employees… a lock-out is a weapon available to the employer to persuade by a coercive process…”

(1) Karibetta Estate Kotagiri vs. Raja Manickam, 1963

(2) Workmen of Jamadoba Colliery of Tata Iron & Steel Co. vs. Jamadoba Colliery of Tata Iron & Steel Co., 1967

(3) Express Newspapers (Pvt) Ltd., vs. Their Workmen. 1959-60

(4) None of the above

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  1. The number of representatives of workmen on the Works Committee in any industrial establishment

(1) Shall be more than the number of representatives of the employer

(2) Shall not be more than 100

(3) Shall not be less than 12

(4) Shall not be less than the number of representatives of the employer

 

  1. The Labour Court is constituted for adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any matters specified in

(1) The Fourth Schedule                                       (2) The Second Schedule

(3) Miscellaneous                                        (4) Chapter V-A & V-B

 

Q69 – Ans.3 | Q70 – Ans.1 | Q71 – Ans.4 | Q72 – Ans.2 |

 

  1. What is not included in ‘Wages’ under Industrial Dispure Act, 1947?

(1) Any travelling concession            (2) Dearness Allowance

(3) Any bonus                                  (4) Value of any house accommodation

 

  1. An industrial strike is illegal

(1) Within in 14 days of strike notice

(2) Before the expiry of the date of strike

(3) Without giving notice within 6 weeks before striking

(4) All of the above

 

  1. According to the Industrial Dispute Act, an Industrial dispute means a dispute or difference between

(1) Employers and Employers                    (2) Workmen and Workmen

(3) Workmen and Management                            (4) All of the above

 

  1. The minimum age to become a member of a registered trade union is

(1) 12 years                    (2) 15 years          (3) 18 years          (4) 21 years

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  1. Which of the following pairs is incorrect:

(1) Hadley vs. Baxendale – Damage of breach of contract

(2) Mohori Bibi vs. Dharmodas Ghose – Nature of minor’s agreement

(3) Satyabrata Ghose vs Mugneeram Bangur and Co – Coercion

(4) Percept D’Mark (India) Pvt. Ltd vs. Zaheer Khan – Agreement in restraint of trade

Q73 – Ans.3 | Q74 – Ans.4 | Q75 – Ans.4 | Q76 – Ans.2 | Q77 – Ans.3 |

 

 

  1. ‘The rescission of a voidable contract may be communicated or revoked in the same manner and subject to same rules, as apply to the communication or revocation of a proposal’. This is provided under:

(1)Section 3 of the Indian Contract Act      (2)Section 60 of the Indian Contract Act

(3)Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act    (4)Section 66 of the Indian Contract Act

 

  1. A promise made without any intention of performing it amounts to:

(1) Coercion         (2) Undue influence        (3) Fraud    (4) Misrepresentation

 

  1. Which are the following sections of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 deal with penalities / procedures that can be imposed / followed for the default in submitting return or supplying false information?

(1) Sections 23 , 25 & 26                            (2) Sections 12-15

(3) Sections 31-33                                      (4) None of the above

 

  1. If an award is made by the Industrial Tribunal, it binds

(1) The parties to dispute

(2) All persons who were employed in establishment

(3) All persons who would be employed in future

(4) All of the above

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  1. The general funds of a registered Trade Union shall not be spent on

(1) Compensation of members for loss arising out of trade disputes

(2) Funeral or religious ceremonies for deceased members

(3) In support of an illegal strike or lock- out

(4) Conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the Trade Union or member thereof.

Q78 – Ans.4 | Q79 – Ans.3 | Q80 – Ans.3 | Q81 – Ans.4 | Q82 – Ans.3 |

 

  1. Which Section of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines “Industrial Dispute”?

(1) Section 2(j)     (2) Section 2(f)     (3) Section 2(k)    (4) Section 2(d)

 

  1. Tort is redressible by an action

(1) For restoration of original postion                 (2) For liquidated damages

(3) For unliquidated damages                     (4) All of the above

 

  1. The liability of independent tort feasors is

(1) Joint                (2) Several            (3) Joint and several      (4) None of these

 

  1. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 envisages

(1) 2-tier Judicial System                            (2) 3- tier quasi- Judicial System

(3) Multi- tier Judicial System           (4) Unitary Judicial System

 

  1. Mc Naughton’s Rule is applicable to defence of

(1) Intoxication              (2) Insanity           (3) Accident                   (4) Mistake of fact

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  1. Right of private defence of property does not extend to causing death against the offence of

(1)  Robbery                            (2) House Breaking by Night                                          (3) Trespass               (4) Mischief by fire of building used for custody of property

 

  1. The rule of Ryland vs. Fletcher does not apply when the escape is due to

(1) Act of God      (2) Negligence       (3) Mistake           (4) Inevitable accident

Q83 – Ans.3 | Q84 – Ans.3 | Q85 – Ans.2 | Q86 – Ans.2 | Q87 – Ans.2 |

 Q88 – Ans.3 | Q89 – Ans.1 |

 

  1. The meaning of maxim ‘qui facit peralium facit per se’ means

(1) He who acts through others is deemed in law as doing it himself

(2) Responsibility must be that of the superior

(3) One cannot be held liable for his own wrong

(4) None of the above

 

  1. Ashby vs. White is an example of

(1)  Ubi jus ibi remedium                                                (2) Damnum sine injuria                (3) Injuria sine damnum                                             (4) Volenti not fit injuria

 

  1. The pecuniary jurisdiction limit of the District Consumer Forum is

(1) Up to 10 Lakhs                                     (2) Up to 20 Lakhs                                            (3) Up to 50 Lakhs                                 (4) Above 1 Crore

 

  1. Which of the following Act shall not be applicable to a registered Trade Union under Section 14 of Trade Union Act, 1926

(1) The Society Registration Act, 1860     (2) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

(3) The Companies Act, 1956                  (4) All of the above

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  1. A National Tribunal for adjudication of Industrial disputes shall consists of

(1) One Person                                  (2) Not less than three persons

(3) Not more than two persons                  (4) Upto three persons

Q90 – Ans.1 | Q91 – Ans.3 | Q92 – Ans.2 | Q93 – Ans.4 | Q94 – Ans.1 |

 

 

  1. The land mark case on the definition of “Industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is:

(1) Banglore Water Supply and Sewerage Board vs. T.N. Rao

(2) T.N. Rao vs. Rajappa

(3) Banglore Water vs, Sewerage Board

(4) Banglore Water Supply and Sewerage Board vs. Rajappa

 

 

  1. The Industrial Disputes Act aims to harmonize the conflicting interest between:

(1) Workman and Workman                                (2) Employers and employers

(3) Employers and EmployeesAns.            (4) Employees and workman

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  1. In Lock – out the relationship between employer and employees is

(1) Suspended temporarily                         (2) Suspended for 15 years

(3) Suspended permanently                        (4) None of the above

 

  1. X and Y go to murder Z. X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at all. Y killed Z.

(1) Only Y is liable to murder Z

(2) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z

(3) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt act

(4) Both (1) and (3)

Q95 – Ans.4 | Q96 – Ans.3 | Q97 – Ans.1 | Q98 – Ans.2 |

 

 

  1. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(1) Three              (2) Six                  (3) Five                 (4) Four

 

  1. Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of

(1) doli incapax    (2) Partially incapax      (3) Both 1 and 2   (4) Either 1 or 2

 

  1. RTI Act is to provide ______________ in the administration

(1) Transparency & Accountability

(2) Responsibility & Participation

(3) Only Participation

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  1. Supreme Court has suggested for establishment of environmental court for speedy disposal in

(1) India council for enviro – legal action vs. Union of India

(2) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India

(3) Akhil Bharti Goseva Sangh vs. State of Andhra Pradesh

(4) None of the above

 

  1. The Supreme Court declared ‘Hand- cuffing is prima facie inhuman and thereof unreasonable’ is

(1) Prem Shankar Shukla vs. Delhi Administration

(2) D.K. Basu vs. West Bengal

(3) Nilabati Behra vs. State of Orissa

(4) Parmanand Katara vs. Union of India

Q99 – Ans.3 | Q100 – Ans.1 | Q101 – Ans.1 | Q102 – Ans.1 | Q103 – Ans.1 |

 

  1. Right to information is associated with Fundamental Right of

(1)  Freedom of speech and expression                (2) Equality

(3) Life                                                                 (4) All of the above

 

  1. In the recent Novartis AG vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court rejected the patent of ______________ drug?

(1) Gleevec           (2) Macsarin                  (3) Asprin            (4) Zimmerman

  1. As per Section 15 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, any contravention of the provisions of the Act is punishable with imprisonment upto:

(1) 3 Years           (2) 5 Years           (3) 7 Years  (4) 10 Years

 

  1. The maxim ‘de minimus non curatlex’ means

(1) Law would not take action on small & trifling matter

(2) Law does not ignore act which causes the slightest harm

(3) Law would not take action in serious harm

(4) All of the above

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  1. Section 2(1)(e) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines

(1) Defect    (2) Consumer Dispute   (3) Consumer       (4) Complaint

 

  1. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means

(1) Ignorance of law is no excuse                (2) Ignorance of facts is no excuse

(3) Ignorance of law is an excuse                (4) Ignorance of facts is an excuse

Q104 – Ans.1 | Q105 – Ans.1 | Q106 – Ans.2 | Q107 – Ans.1 | Q108 – Ans.2 | Q109 – Ans.1 |

 

  1. Which of the following is not a tort

(1) Breach of Contract                                (2) Including breach of contract               (3) Passing off                                            (4) Deceit

 

  1. The Copyright Board shall consists of a Chairman and

(1) Not less than two or more than eight members

(2) Not less than two or more than fourteen other members

(3) Upto eleven members

(4) None of the above

 

  1. The office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) is located at

(1) Kolkata           (2) Delhi               (3) Mumbai          (4) Nagpur

 

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  1. The fundamental duty to protect the environment is dealt under:

(1) Article 253      (2) Article 48-A    (3) Article 51-A(g)            (4) None of these

 

  1. In which year the ECOMARK Scheme was announced by the Department of Environment, Forests and Wildlife

(1) 1986               (2) 1991               (3) 1996               (4) 2005

Q110 – Ans.1 | Q111 – Ans.2 | Q112 – Ans.3 | Q113 – Ans.3 | Q114 – Ans.2 |

 

  1. Who can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?

(1) Who has been the Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(2) Who has been the Judge of the Supreme Court

(3) Who has been the Chief Justice of High Court

(4) Any judge of the Supreme Court on the recommendation of the President

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  1. While adjudging the quantum of compensation under Chapter IX of the IT Act, 2000 the adjudicating officer shall have due regards to following:

(1) Amount of gain of unfair advantage made as result of default

(2) Repetitive nature of the default

(3) Amount of loss caused as a result of default

(4) All of the above

 

  1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years

(2) No Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office after he has attained the age of 65 years

(3) Chief Information Commissioner shall be eligible for reappointment

(4) Salaries payable to Chief Information Commissioner shall be same as that of the Chief Election Commissioner

 

  1. Intellectual Property Right is:

(1) Fundamental Right   (2) Tangible                   (3) Intangible                 (4) None of these

 

  1. Chairman of National Human Rights Commission shall hold office upto the age of

(1) 65 Years                   (2) 70 Years                   (3) 75 Years                   (4) None of these

 

  1. Application for patents shall not be open to the public during the period of

(1) 18 months from the date of filing                   (2) 36 months from the date of filing

(3) 12 months from the date of filing                   (4) 24 months from the date of filing

Q115 – Ans.1 | Q116 – Ans.4 | Q117 – Ans.3 | Q118 – Ans.3 |Q119 – Ans.2 | Q120 – Ans.1 |

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