NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key – Paper 1 January 2017

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key – Paper 1 January 2017


Q1. Assertion (A): Sustainable development critical to well-being

of human society.

Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment

or deplete the natural resources.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is true

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: B

Q2. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen

(NOx) in urban areas is

(A) Road trAns:port

(B) Commercial Sector

(C) Energy use in industry

(D) Power plants

Answer: B

Q3. Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Hepatitis

(C) Cholera

(D) Dengue

Answer: D

Q4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.90


(A) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.

(B) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate

and share information online.


(C) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating

users to create it.

(D) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

Answer: B

Q5. With regard to a word processing software, the process of

combining static information in a publication together with variable

information in a data source to create one merged publication is called

(A) Electronic mail

(B) Data sourcing

(C) Mail merge

(D) Spam mail

Answer: C

Q6. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data

DVD is an acronym for

(A) Digital Vector Disc

(B) Digital Volume Disc

(C) Digital Versatile Disc

(D) Digital Visualization Disc

Answer: C

Q7. Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of

higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum

(b) Promotion of elitism in education

(c) Commodification of higher education

(d) Increase in the cost of education

Select the correct Answer from the codes given below

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (a), (c) and (d)

(C) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: C

Q8. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed



(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.

(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.

(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.

(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct Answer from the codes given below

(A) (A), (B) and (C)

(B) (B), (C) and (D)

(C) (A), (C) and (D)

(D) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer: B

Q9. India government’s target for power production from small

hydro projects by the year 2022 is

(A) 1 Giga-Watt

(B) 5 Giga-Watt

(C) 10 Giga-Watt

(D) 15 Giga-Watt

Answer: B

Q10. In which country, the recent international agreement on

phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?

(A) Rwanda

(B) Morocco

(C) South Africa

(D) Algeria

Answer: A

Q11. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydrometeorological?

(A) Snow avalanche

(B) Sea erosion

(C) Tropical cyclone

(D) Tsunami

Answer: B

Q12. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the


President who among the following hold (s) office during good


(a) Governor of State

(b) Attorney General of India

(c) Judges of high court

(d) Administrator of Union Territories Select the correct Answer from the

codes given below:

(A) (a) only

(B) (c) Only

(C) (a) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

Q13. The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on

(A) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.

(B) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group

(C) Concern for human values

(D) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Answer: C

Q14. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during

national emergency. (b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of

the States.

(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the

states they represent.

(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha. Select the

correct Answer from the codes given below

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (b) and (c)

(C) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

Q15. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate

consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State


(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary Select the correct Answer from the

codes given below

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (b) and (c)

Answer: A

Q16. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made

optimal and proactive?

(A) Discussion method

(B) Buzz session method

(C) Brainstorming session method

(D) Project method

Answer: A

Q17. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching

effectiveness is related to the

(A) Social system of the country

(B) Economic status of the society

(C) Prevailing political system

(D) Educational system

Answer: D

Q18. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the

pace of learning. Reason (R): As against summative evaluation,

formative evaluation is highly reliable.

Choose the correct Answer from the following code

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: C

Q19. Which of the following set of statements represents


acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships?

Choose the correct code to indicate your Answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also Real learning implies rote learning

(A) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(C) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(D) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: B

Q20. Assertion (A): Learning is a life long process. Reason (R):

Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.

Choose the correct Answer from the following code

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: B

Q21. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(A) Course coverage

(B) Students’ interest

(C) Learning outcomes of students

(D) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Answer: C

Q22. Below are given two seat – research methods (Set-I) and data

collection tools (Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your Answer

by selecting the correct code:

Set-I Set-II

A Experimental method 1 Using primary secondary sources

B Ex post-facto method 2 Questionnaire

C Descriptive survey method 3 Standardized tests


D Historical method 4 Typical characteristics tests



(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 3 4 2 1

(C) 2 3 1 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Answer: B

Q23. The of ‘Research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which

stage of research?

(A) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

(B) At the stage of defining the population of research

(C) At the stage of data collection and interpretation

(D) At the stage of reporting the findings.

Answer: D

Q24. In which of the following, reporting format is formally


(A) Doctoral level thesis

(B) Conference of researchers

(C) Workshops and seminars

(D) Symposia

Answer: A

Q25. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of

teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their

enhanced participation in school programmers. This endeavor may be

related to which type of research?

(A) Evaluation Research

(B) Fundamental Research

(C) Action Research

(D) Applied Research


Answer: C

Q26. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?

(A) Reflect, observe, plan, act

(B) Plan, act, observe, reflect

(C) Plan, reflect, observe, act

(D) Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: B

Q27. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given


(A) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design,

Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and


(B) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem

formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.

(C) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research

design, Collection of a Data; Data analysis and formulation of generalizations

and conclusions.

(D) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools

Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence

Answer: C

Passage: The last Great War, which nearly shook the foundations of the

modern world had little impact on Indian Literature beyond aggravating the

popular revulsions against violence and adding to growing disillusionment

with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently

voiced in Tagore’s poems and his last testament, “Crisis in Civilization”. The

Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could

not help but sympathize with the England’s dogged courage in the hour of peril,

with the RussiAns: fighting with their backs on the wall against ruthless Nazi

hordes, and with the China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on

the other hand their own country was practically under the military occupation

of their own soil and the Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the

opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from


such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian

independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies victory and was

followed by collapse of colonialism in the neighboring countries of South East

Asia, would have released an upsurge of the creative energy. No doubt it did,

but it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition with the inhuman

slaughter of innocents and the uprooting of the millions of the people from their

homeland followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies

along with Pakistan’s Invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in

Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a pregnant writing, particularly in the

languages of the regions most affected Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi,

Sindhi and Urdu. Both poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make

great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence served these

disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and

economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of

convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in terms of volume, range and

variety than it ever was in past.

Q28. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence creative

energy in India literature.

(A) Military occupation of one’s own soil

(B) Resistance to colonial occupation

(C) Great agony of partition

(D) Victory of Allies

Answer: C

Q29. What passage has the message that

(A) Suspicion of other countries

(B) Continuance of rivalry

(C) Menace of war

(D) National reconstruction

Answer: D

Q30. The passage has the message that

(A) Disasters are inevitable

(B) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions


(C) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape

(D) Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Answer: B

Q31. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian


(A) It had no impact

(B) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence

(C) It shook the foundations of literature

(D) It offered eloquent support to the Western World

Answer: B

Q32. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

(A) Offered support to Subhas Bose

(B) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World

(C) Expressed loyalty to England

(D) Encouraged the liberation of countries

Answer: B

Q33. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period

of great war?

(A) Indifference to Russia’s plight

(B) They favored Japanese militarism

(C) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties

(D) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.

Answer: D

Q34. Expressive communication is driven by

(A) Passive aggression

(B) Encoder’s personality characteristics

(C) External clues

(D) Encoder-decoder contract

Answer: B


Q35. Positive classroom communication leads to

(A) Coercion

(B) Submission

(C) Confrontation

(D) Persuasion

Answer: D

Q36. Classroom communication is the basis of

(A) Social identity

(B) External inanities

(C) Biased passivity

(D) Group aggression

Answer: A

Q37. Effective communication pre-supposes

(A) Non-alignment

(B) Domination

(C) Passivity

(D) Understanding

Answer: D

Q38. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is

that most people believe in

(A) It determinate messages

(B) Verbal messages

(C) Non-verbal messages

(D) Aggressive messages

Answer: C

Q39. The typical feature of information-rich classroom lecture is in

the nature of being

(A) Sedentary


(B) Staggered

(C) Factual

(D) Sectoral

Answer: C

Q40. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:

(A) Number of languages a person speaks

(B) Number of children in a household

(C) Population of cities

(D) Weight of students in a class

Answer: D

Q41. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the

shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays

Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two

pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups

will be

(A) Rs. 40

(B) Rs. 60

(C) Rs. 80

(D) Rs. 70

Answer: D

Q42. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner

while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one

(A) Lucknow

(B) Rishikesh

(C) Allahabad

(D) Patna

Answer: A

Q43. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the

code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:

(A) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment

(B) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises


(C) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily

(D) The argument may be valid or invalid

Answer: A

Q44. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27 16, ? , 36, 343, ……is

(A) 30

(B) 49

(C) 125

(D) 81

Answer: C

Q45. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ?

Will be





Answer: B

Q46 If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as

M, O as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be





Answer: D

Q47. Given below are two premises ( (a) and (b) ).

From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn.

Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises

(taking singly or jointly. )

Premises: (a) Untouchability is a curse (b) All hot pans are untouchable

Conclusions: (i) All hot pans are curse (ii) Some untouchable things are hot

pans (iii) All curses are untouchability (iv) Some curses are untouchability

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)


(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)


Q48. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false

which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?

Select the correct code:

(A) All brave persons win the race

(B) Some persons who win the race are not brave

(C) Some persons who win the race are brave

(D) No person who wins the race is brave

Answer: A

Q49. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same

subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is

undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?

(A) Contrary

(B) Subcontrary

(C) Contradictory

(D) Subaltern

Answer: C

Q50. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies

but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any

more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a

fish’s fins. What type of argument it is?

(A) Biological

(B) Physiological

(C) Analogical

(D) Hypothetical

Answer: C

Q51. Among the following propositions two are related in such a

way that they cannot both be true but can both be false.

Select the code that states those two propositions.

Propositions: (a) Every student is attentive. (b) Some students are


attentive (c) Students are never attentive (d) Some students are not


(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (c)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (c) and (d)

Answer: B

The table below embodies data on the sales revenue ( Rs. in lakh)

generated by a publishing house during the years 2012 – 15 while selling

books, magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer

questions 52 – 54 based on the data contained in the table

Items Sales Revenue (in lakh)

2012 2013 2014 2015

Journals 46 47 45 44

Magazines 31 39 46 51

Books 73 77 78 78

Total 150 163 169 173

Q52. In 2015 approximately what percent of total revenue came

from books?

(A) 45%

(B) 55%

(C) 35%

(D) 25%

Answer: A

Q53. The number of years in which was an increase in revenue from

at two categories of items, is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Answer: C


Q54. If the year 2016 ware to show the same growth in terms of

total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the 2014, then the revenue

in the year 2016 must be approximately:

(A) Rs. 194 lakh

(B) Rs. 187 lakh

(C) Rs. 172 lakh

(D) Rs. 177 lakh

Answer: B

A university professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by

performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer

hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost because of a computer virus.

Only the following could be recovered

Table for question 54 Number of MCA

Gender Number of MCA Students







Male 10


Total 30

Panic button were pressed but to no avail.

An expert committee was formed which decided that the following facts

were self-evident: Half of the students were either excellent or good 40 %

students were females One-third of the males were average

Q55. How many female students are excellent?

(A) 0

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) 32

Answer: A

Q56. What proportion of female students are good?

(A) 0


(B) 0.25

(C) 0.50

(D) 0.27

Answer: B

Q57. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?

(A) 0

(B) 0.73

(C) 0.43

(D) 0.27

Answer: B

Q58. Which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?

S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.

S2. In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal

value as 0.625.

(A) S1 only

(B) S2 only

(C) Both S1 and S2

(D) Neither S1 nor S2

Answer: B

Q59. Read the following two statements:

I: information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of

Information Technology (IT)

II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright. Which of the

above statement (s) is/are CORRECT?

(A) Both I and II

(B) Neither I nor II

(C) II only

(D) I only

Answer: D

Q60. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types

from highest to lowest speed?

(A) Secondary Storage: Main Memory (RAM); Cache. Memory; CPU


(B) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)

(C) CPU Registers; Cache Memory: Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

(D) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary


Answer: C

(CPU Registers > Cache Memory > Main Memory (RAM) > Secondary


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