NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key – Paper 1 August 2016

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key – Paper 1 August 2016 (Retest – Test Conducted second time)

Paper-I August – 2016(Retest)

Q1. In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for

showing scheme of Chapterisation ?

(A) Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-

Analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested

further study, References, Appendix

(B) Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation,

Generalizations, Conclusions and Survey of related studies and suggestions

for further research, References and Appendix

(C) Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Datapresentation;

analysis & Interpretation, Formulation of generalization &

Conclusions, Suggestions for further research, References & Appendix

(D) Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study,

Data analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations,

Suggestions for further research, Appendix

Answer: C

Q2. Which of the following is not the critical feature of

qualitative research ?

(A) Actual settings are the direct source of data.

(B) Data take the forms of words or pictures.

(C) Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.

(D) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past related to

the phenomena.

Answer: C

Q3. A detailed description of methodology of research is

required in

(A) Thesis/Dissertation (B) Symposium/Workshop

(C) Seminar paper/Articles (D) Conference and Seminar Papers

Answer: A


Q4. Research ethics has a direct connection more often with

which stages of research ?

(A) Defining and delimiting the scope of research.

(B) Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.

(C) Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for research.

(D) Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.

Answer: B

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :

Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are

dissimilar to those observable in advanced-technology industries and firms.

For instance, company longevity does not represent a consistent concern across

the two organisational contexts. In the advanced-technology company for

example, one new-product innovation – which is expected to generate financial

returns to the firm – is insufficient for the company to be successful.

Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the

independent production company of this case, each new film – which is

expected to generate financial returns to the principals – is sufficient for the

company to be successful. Any subsequent new films involving the firm’s

participants will be produced by a different independent company.

As another instance, people’s learning is expected to have different

contributors and beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In the

advanced-technology company, for example, each new product innovation

provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and

acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such participants,

hence, benefit from their increased experience on the next project. By contrast

with the independent production company, each new film provides an

opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and acquire this

experience also, but this same company has little or no expectation of retaining

such participants, and hence, benefitting from their increased experience in the

next project.

Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally, on film

projects, budgets are very tight, and schedules are very demanding. People are

hired largely based on their experience and are expected to perform well

immediately when called to do so. There is negligible slack time or margin for


learning through trial and error, but experienced people learn exactly through

trial and error. Because experience is valued so highly and film-production

houses have such short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult

for most people. Further, the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in

this industry. Some skills and techniques can be learned and refined through

formal education (e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but the majority

come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an important role. True, the

film business focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of

the industry as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and exploration


Q5. What is not a consistent concern across the two

organisational contexts ?

(A) Dissimilarity (B) Product package

(C) Financial return (D) Company longevity

Answer: D

Q6. What will be sufficient for an independent production

company to be successful ?

(A) New product innovations

(B) Financial returns from each new film

(C) Active role by firm’s participants

(D) Organisational context

Answer: B

Q7. What does an advanced-technology company expect from

the learning experience of its participants ?

(A) Benefit for the next project

(B) Opportunity for more learning

(C) Little expectation of retaining them

(D) Help in marketing the previous product

Answer: A

Q8. What is not the expectation of an independent production

company in the case of its participants ?

(A) Absence from the next project.


(B) Retention for the next project.

(C) Participation in the current project.

(D) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.

Answer: B

Q9. Why do film production houses value experience highly ?

(A) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.

(B) Because of the margin for learning.

(C) Because of short time horizons.

(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.

Answer: C

Q10. According to the author, what has been the focus of film

business ?

(A) Formal education (B) Mentoring

(C) Exploitation (D) Indirect experience

Answer: C

Q11. Internal and external factors that affect message reception

by the students in the classroom are referred to as

(A) feedback (B) fragmentation

(C) channelization (D) noise

Answer: D

Q12. A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over

(A) the self, selected methods of communication and the message.

(B) the audience, the noise and the reception.

(C) the feedback, the technology and the audience experience.

(D) the communication channel, other communicators, and external factors.

Answer: A

Q13. What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation


(A) Inspiration, controversy and introspection

(B) Diversion, criticism and irrationality

(C) Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance


(D) Power, structure and tradition

Answer: D

Q14. As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to

know your

(A) audience emotions (B) silent cues

(C) artful pauses (D) counter


Answer: C

Q15. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a

classroom from the following :

(A) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement

(B) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics

(C) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance

(D) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

Answer: D

Q16. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective

listening ?

(A) Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions

(B) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement

(C) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice

(D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions

Answer: D

Q17. In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI.

The code of BIOLOGICALS will be



Answer: D

Q18. In the series

1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ……., the next term is

(A) 59 (B) 63

(C) 61 (D) 68


Answer: C

Q19. At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5

years, the sum of their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother

after 10 years will be

(A) 40 (B) 55

(C) 45 (D) 60

Answer: B

Q20. In the series : AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? , the next term is



Answer: D

Q21. C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and

brother of D. B is related to C as

(A) Brother (B) Son

(C) Uncle (D) Father-in-law

Answer: C

Q22. Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the

runs was found to be 80. After playing four more matches, the mean

of the runs of all the matches was found to be 70. The total runs made

in the last four matches is

(A) 400 (B) 300

(C) 200 (D) 100

Answer: C

Q23. If two propositions are connected in such a way that they

cannot both be false although they may both be true, then their

relationship is called

(A) Contrary (B) Subcontrary

(C) Contradictory (D) Subalternation

Answer: B

Q24. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a


deductive type of argument ?

(A) The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.

(B) The argument admits degree of complexity.

(C) The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.

(D) The argument must be either valid or invalid.

Answer: C

Q25. Select the code which states the condition of an invalid

deductive argument :

(A) All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

(B) Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

(C) All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.

(D) All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.

Answer: A

Q26. Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn

from them (taking singly or together); which conclusions are validly

drawn ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Premises : (i) All bats are mammals.

(ii) Birds are not bats.

Conclusions : (a) Birds are not mammals.

(b) Bats are not birds.

(c) All mammals are bats.

(d) Some mammals are bats.

Codes :

(A) (a), (b) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

Q27. When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum

to mean what is meant by the definiens it is called

(A) Lexical definition (B) Stipulative definition

(C) Precising definition (D) Persuasive definition

Answer: B

Q28. Select the code which is not correct :


An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) increasing the number of entities.

(B) increasing the number of similar respects.

(C) reducing the claim made earlier stronger.

(D) making the conclusion stronger when premises remain unchanged.

Answer: D

Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of

students in each faculty at University and the number of foreign students

in the Science faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest

whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the science faculty.

Study these tables I and II and answer the questions 29 – 31 :

I : Students


II : Foreign Students

in Science Faculty

Name of


% of




Number of



Computing 22 American 79

Business 14 Australian 4

Science 23 African 2

Engineering 9 Chinese 6

Arts 21 European 21

Medicine 5

Law 6

Q29. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science

faculty is that of foreign students ?

(A) 14% (B) 9%

(C) 30% (D) 11%

Answer: D

Q30. Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering

faculty ?


(A) 420 (B) 410

(C) 390 (D) 400

Answer: B

Q31. In case, there are 34 European medical students, then

approximately, what is their percentage in the medicine faculty ?

(A) 13% (B) 18%

(C) 12% (D) 15%

Answer: D

A college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class

MCA-III and remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and

class MCA-II. The proportion of female students and the proportion of

vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the table.

Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information.

Proportion of females and proportion

of vegetarians in each class

Class Female (F) Vegetarian





0.45 0.50



Total 0.525 0.53

For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female

students and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.

Q32. What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III


(A) 40 (B) 45

(C) 50 (D) 55


Answer: D

Q33. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCAI


(A) 40 (B) 45

(C) 50 (D) 55

Answer: A

Q34. How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class

MCA-I and class MCA-II ?

(A) 72 (B) 88

(C) 78 (D) 92

Answer: B

Q35. Which of the following statements regarding the features of

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true ?

  1. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the

applications based on them.

  1. ICT support the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content

from the place where it belongs physically.

III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the

expenditure for them to be maximized.

Codes :

(A) I and II only (B) I and III only

(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III

Answer: A

Q36. If one GigaByte is equal to 230 Bytes of data storage, then

1024 TeraBytes is equal to ………….. bits of data storage.

(A) 250 (B) 253

(C) 240 (D) 256

Answer: B

Q37. The software used to navigate through the web is known as

(A) Website (B) Web Browser

(C) Internet (D) World Wide Web


Answer: B

Q38. With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc : mean ?

(A) Blind Computer Communication : – The users specified in the Bcc : field

will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

(B) Blind Carbon Copy : – The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the email

and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

(C) Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc : field

will get the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people

get e-mail.

(D) Blind Carbon Copy : The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the email

but will not see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

Answer: B

Q39. Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer

storage, is a …………. memory.

(A) Non-volatile (B) Volatile

(C) Permanent (D) Secondary

Answer: B

Q40. In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless

protocol as servers do not maintain any information about past client

requests. HTTP is an acronym for

(A) Hyper Text Translation Protocol

(B) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

(C) High TeraByte Transfer Protocol

(D) Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol

Answer: B

Q41. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and

parts of India is due to

(A) industrial waste (B) thermal power plants

(C) natural sources (D) agricultural practices

Answer: C

Q42. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts


human health as well as climate ?

(A) Soot (B) Sulphur dioxide

(C) Oxides of nitrogen (D) Chlorofluoro carbons

Answer: A

Q43. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability

are difficult to resolve.

Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how different

human choices affect environment is inadequate.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: A

Q44. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy

in the total electric power generation from all renewable energy

sources sought to be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022,


(A) ~ 57.1% (B) ~ 65.5%

(C) ~ 47.5% (D) ~ 75%

Answer: A

Q45. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions,

Indian government through additional forest and tree cover has

resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon

dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of

(A) 3.5 to 4 billion tons (B) 2.5 to 3 billion tons

(C) 1.5 to 2 billion tons (D) 1 to 1.5 billion tons

Answer: B

Q46. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard ?

(A) Avalanche (B) Coastal erosion

(C) Landslide (D) Blizzard

Answer: D


Q47. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first

in the India Rankings 2016 ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi

(B) Central University, Hyderabad

(C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

(D) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

Answer: C

Q48. Which of the following statements are correct about distance

education in India ?

(a) It supplements formal education.

(b) It reduces the cost of education.+

(c) It replaces the formal education.

(d) It enhances access to education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: C

Q49. Which of the following are statutory bodies ?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (d)

Answer: C

Q50. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect

of Rajya Sabha ?

(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.

(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.


(c) It can amend a money bill.

(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (b) and (c) (B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: D

Q51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the

powers of the Governor of a State ?

(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.

(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.

(d) He has diplomatic powers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a) only (B) (a) and (b)

(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: A

Q52. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural

justice (Hear the other party) must be followed ?

(a) Dismissal of an employee

(b) Supersession of a municipality

(c) Threat to national security

(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: C

Q53. Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic

characteristics of teaching ?

Select the correct alternative from the codes :

(i) Teaching is the same as training.


(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we


(iii) Teaching is related to learning.

(iv) Teaching is a ‘task’ word while learning is an ‘achievement’ word.

(v) Teaching means giving information.

(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iv) and (vi)

Answer: B

Q54. Which of the following factors affect teaching ?

Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) Teacher’s internal locus of control.

(ii) Learner-motivation.

(iii) Teacher’s biographical data.

(iv) Teacher’s self efficacy.

(v) Learner’s interest in co-curricular activities.

(vi) Teacher’s skill in managing and monitoring.

(vii) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii) (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and


(C) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

and (vi)

Answer: A

Q55. Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to

optimise learning ?

(A) Lecturing, discussions and seminar method

(B) Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based


(C) Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions, brainstorming and


(D) Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations

Answer: C


Q56. Assertion (A): Teaching aids have to be considered as effective

supplements to instruction.

Reason (R): They keep the students in good humour.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: B

Q57. The purpose of formative evaluation is to

(A) grade students’ learning outcomes.

(B) accelerate students’ learning performance.

(C) check students’ performance graph.

(D) provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.

Answer: B

Q58. Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to

influence the effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to

ensure positive results?

(A) Learner’s family background, age and habitation.

(B) Learner’s parentage, socio-economic background and performance in

learning of the concerned subject.

(C) Learner’s stage of development, social background and personal interests.

(D) Learner’s maturity level, academic perfor

mance level and motivational dispositions.

Answer: D

Q59. For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by

mankind is

(A) consulting an authority (B) deductive reasoning

(C) scientific thinking (D) inductive reasoning

Answer: C


Q60. There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of

research and Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match

the two sets and choose your answer from the codes given below :

Set – I Set – II

(Research method) (Procedural Characteristics)

  1. Experimental method i. Interventions to ameliorate a given


  1. Expost facto method ii. Explaining patterns of behaviour in terms

of meanings and their representations which people share.

  1. Descriptive method iii. Manipulating an independent variable

in controlled conditions and measuring its effect on dependent variable.

  1. Symbolic interactionism iv. Depending on primary and

secondary sources of data.

  1. Action research v. Obtaining information concerning

the current status of phenomena.

  1. Observing the effect on dependent variable and

making probes into factors/variables which explain it.

vii. Exegetic analysis.

Codes :

a b c d e

(A) i iii iv v vii

(B) iii iv v vi vii

(C) i ii iii iv v

(D) iii vi v ii i

Answer: D


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