NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key June 2014

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key – Exam held on June 2014

Q1. “lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its

value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses

its strength.”

The argument put above may be called as

(A) Analogical (B) Deductive

(C) Statistical (D) Casual

Answer: A

Q2. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument.

Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of

inductive in character.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.

(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.

(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.

(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment

Answer: C

Q3. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate

terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between

those two propositions is called

(A) contradictory (B) contrary

(C) subcontrary (D) subaltern

Answer: C

Q4. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2

and 7. How many numbers have been written?

(A) 32 (B) 36

(C) 40 (D) 38

Answer: A

 

Q5. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C interrelated

with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians,

the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents

the class of politicians. p, q, r, s… represent different regions. Select

the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian

scientists who are not politicians.

Codes:

(A) q and s only

(B) s only

(C) s and r only

(D) p, q and s only

Answer: B

Q6. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn

from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn

validly from the premises (separately or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All dogs are mammals.

(b) No cats are dogs.

Conclusions:

(i) No cats are mammals

(ii) Some cats are mammals.

(iii) No Dogs are cats

(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.

Codes:

(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)

(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: C

 

Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions

from 7 to 11 :

Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

Year Government

Canals

Private

Canals

Tanks Tube

wells

and

other

wells

Other

sources

Total

1997-

98

17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173

1998-

99

17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411

1999-

00

16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109

2000-

01

15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076

2001-

02

15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672

2002-

03

13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778

2003-

04

14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618

2004-

05

14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867

2005-

06

15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

Q7. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the

maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area

during 2002-03 and 2003-04.

 

(A) Government Canals

(B) Tanks

(C) Tube Wells and other wells

(D) Other Sources

Answer: D

Q8. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks

increased at the highest rate?

(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01

(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06

Answer: D

Q9. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the

maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area

during the years given in the table.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(C) Tube Wells and other wells

(D) Other sources

Answer: A

Q10. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and

other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?

(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01

(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05

Answer: C

Q11. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered

the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during

1997-98 and 2005-06 ?

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(C) Tanks

(D) Other Sources

Answer: C

 

Q12. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file

format?

(A) PNG (B) GIF

(C) BMP (D) GUI

Answer: D

Q13. The first Web Browser is

(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape

(C) World Wide Web (D) Firefox

Answer: C

Q14. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory

by

(A) RAM (B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP

Answer: B

Q15. Which one of the following is not the same as the other

three?

(A) MAC address (B) Hardware address

(C) Physical address (D) IP address

Answer: D

Q16. Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 300 .215.317 3

(B) 302.215@417.5

(C) 202.50.20.148

(D) 202-50-20-148

Answer: C

Q17. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol

(C) File Tracking Protocol

(D) File Transfer Procedure

Answer: A

 

Q18. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by

urban smog in recent times?

(A) Paris (B) London

(C) Los Angeles (D) Beijing

Answer: D

Q19. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies

is

(A) run-off urban areas

(B) run-off from agricultural forms

(C) sewage effluents

(D) industrial effluents

Answer: C

Q20. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material

(B) strong winds

(C) strong water waves

(D) strong winds and water waves

Answer: A

Q21. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average

consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega

Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate

of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon

emissions per year from India will be

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons

(C) 5400 million metric tons

(D) 2400 million metric tons

Answer: B

Q22. The National Disaster Management Authority functions

under the Union Ministry of

(A) Environment (B) Water Resources

 

(C) Home Affairs (D) Defence

Answer: C

Q23. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer

from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

  1. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
  2. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of

vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth

  1. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted substances come

out

  1. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer: A

Q24. Which one of the following green house gases has the

shortest residence time in the atmosphere?

(A) Chlorofluorocarbon

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Methane

(D) Nitrous oxide

Answer: C

Q25. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate

change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world

to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to

that of pre-industrial times by

(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC

(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC

(C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC

(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC

 

Answer: A

Q26. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the

Planning Commission?

(A) Chairman

(B) Deputy Chairman

(C) Minister of State for Planning

(D) Member Secretary

Answer: B

Q27. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Residuary Powers

Answer: C

Q28. Which of the following are Central Universities?

  1. Pondicherry University
  2. Vishwa Bharati
  3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
  4. Kurukshetra University

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: A

Q29. Consider the following statements and select the correct

answer from the code given below:

  1. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
  2. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.

iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.

  1. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.

Codes:

(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii

 

(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv

Answer: D

Q30. Which of universities has adopted the meta university

concept?

(A) Assam University

(B) Delhi University

(C) Hyderabad University

(D) Pondicherry University

Answer: B

Q31. Which of the statements are correct about a Central

University?

  1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
  2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
  3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive

Committee or the Board of Management of the University.

  1. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive

Committee or Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Q32. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments

(i) and (ii).

Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.

Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.

(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:

(A) Only argument (i) is strong.

(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer: A

 

Q33. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture (B) Discussion

(C) Demonstration (D) Narration

Answer: C

Q34. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) mental disorder

(B) behavioural disorder

(C) reading disorder

(D) writing disorder

Answer: C

Q35. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has

been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET

(B) Consortium for Educational Communication

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: B

Q36. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) cognitive

(C) affective (D) selective

Answer: C

Q37. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated

teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of the students

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: A

Q38. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) the appendix

 

(B) a separate chapter

(C) the concluding chapter

(D) the text itself

Answer: D

Q39. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation (B) a fact

(C) an assertion (D) a discussion

Answer: C

Q40. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how

people create meanings in natural settings is identified as

(A) positive paradigm

(B) critical paradigm

(C) natural paradigm

(D) interpretative paradigm

Answer: D

Q41. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random (B) Purposive

(C) Systematic (D) Stratified

Answer: B

Q42. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning

progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during

instruction.

(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic

(C) Formative (D) Summative

Answer: C

Q43. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research

(B) Action research

(C) Fundamental research

(D) Empirical research

Answer: B

 

Q44. Who among the following propounded the concept of

paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen

(C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright

Answer: C

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 45 to 49 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual

and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or

groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The

Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, coexistence

of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually

adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever

assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in

language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in

relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied,

or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a

regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their

ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word

‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict

between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments

became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of

any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modem Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the

state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions.

These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely

persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck

Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the

sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways

gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia.

There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but the

insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and

institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very

different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the

essence of all Utopians.

 

Q45. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight

(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout

the period of history.

(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in

time.

(C) The concept of state sovereignty

(D) Dependence of religion

Answer: D

Q46. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian

‘Secularism’?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations

(B) Total indifference to religion

(C) No space for social identity

(D) Disregard for social law

Answer: A

Q47. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired

by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.

(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.

(C) Social inequality in India.

(D) European perception of Indian State

Answer: A

Q48. What is the striking feature of modern India?

(A) A replica of Utopian State

(B) Uniform Laws

(C) Adherence to traditional values

(D) Absence of Bigotry

Answer: D

Q49. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian

state?

(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership

 

(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances

attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense

(C) Social integration of all groups

(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups

Answer: B

Q50. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed

in the area of

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory

(C) Minimal effects theory

(D) Information theory

Answer: D

Q51. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred

on

(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan

(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

Answer: D

Q52. Photographs are not easy to

(A) publish (B) secure

(C) decode (D) change

Answer: C

Q53. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are

also referred to as

(A) sparks (B) green Dots

(C) snow (D) rain Drops

Answer: C

Q54. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder

when there is

(A) noise (B) audience

(C) criticality (D) feedback

Answer: D

 

Q55. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short Circuit (B) Contradiction

(C) Unevenness (D) Entropy

Answer: D

Q56. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as

DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word

RESPONSE?

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

Answer: C

Q57. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,…….. is continued in the same

pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?

(A) 31 (B) 32

(C) 33 (D) 35

Answer: C

Q58. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP,……….

(A) TS (B) ST

(C) RS (D) SR

Answer: A

Q59. A man started walking from his house towards south. After

walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km after. Then he

walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and

continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?

(A) 3 km (B) 4 km

(C) 5 km (D) 6 km

Answer: C

Q60. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of

Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one

 

cannot buy stamps is

(A) 19 (B) 20

(C) 23 (D) 29

Answer: A

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