NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key June 2013

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2013

Q1. ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web (B) word wide web

(C) world wide web (D) worth while web

Answer: C

Q2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further

subdivided into

(A) Clusters (B) Sectors

(C) Vectors (D) Heads

Answer: B

Q3. A computer program that translates a program statement

by statement into machine language is called a/an

(A) Compiler (B) Simulator

(C) Translator (D) Interpreter

Answer: D

Q4. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes (B) 1024 Kilobytes

(C) 1024 Terabytes (D) 1024 Bytes

Answer: A

Q5. A Compiler is a software which converts

(A) Characters to bits

(B) High level language to machine language

(C) Machine language to high level language

(D) Words to bits

Answer: B

Q6. Virtual memory is


(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory

(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

Answer: C

Q7. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of

(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.

(C) degradation of renewable free access resources

(D) climate change

Answer: C

Q8. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion (B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change (D) Nuclear energy

Answer: C

Q9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to

the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?

(A) Transport sector (B) Refrigeration and Air conditioning

(C) Wetlands (D) Fertilizers

Answer: A

Q10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides Of sulphur

(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM

(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

Answer: B

Q11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the

highest potential to cause damage to humans?

(A) Earth quakes (B) Forest fires

(C) Volcanic eruptions (D) Droughts and



Answer: D

Q12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the

power production in India is around

(A) 2-3 % (B) 22-25%

(C) l0-12% (D) <1%

Answer: C

Q13. In which of the following categories the enrollment of

students in higher in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats


(A) OBC students (B) SC students

(C) ST students (D) Woman students

Answer: A

Q14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about

the University Grants Commission (UGC)?

(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.

(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.

(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities

Answer: D

Q15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments

(I) and (II):

Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?

Arguments: (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.

(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong;

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer: C

Q16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments

(I) and (II):


Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from

contesting elections?

Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.

(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their

political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer: A

Q17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a

Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
  2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
  4. He can be removed for proven misbehavior or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4

Answer: D

Q18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

comes next only to

(A) The President (B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Cabinet Ministers

Answer: C

Q19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for

(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white

(B) Making the students attentive

(C) Writing the important and notable points

(D) Highlighting the teacher himself

Answer: C


Q20. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) Self study (B) Face-to-face learning

(C) e-Learning (D) Blended learning

Answer: C & D

Q21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be

women because they

(A) can teach children better than men.

(B) know basic content better than men.

(C) are available on lower salaries.

(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

Answer: D

Q22. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning (B) Problem-solving


(C) Stimulus-response learning (D) Conditioned-reflex learning

Answer: D

Q23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.

(B) commands respect from students.

(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.

(D) is very close to higher authorities.

Answer: B

Q24. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words” The statement

means that the teacher should

(A) use diagrams in teaching.

(B) speak more and more in the class.

(C) use teaching aids in the class.

(D) not speak too, much in the class.

Answer: C

Q25. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.


(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.

(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research

conducted by others.

(D) can be published in more than one journal.

Answer: C

Q26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good

‘research ethics’?

(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the


(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions

of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a

research paper.

(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a

favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the


Answer: B

Q27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on


(A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Quota Sampling (D) Cluster Sampling

Answer: C

Q28. Which one of the following references is written as per

Modern Language Association (MLA) format?

(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics,

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics,

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics,

New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics.

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

Answer: D


Q29. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a topic

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.

(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students

discuss a topic.

(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of

a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

Answer: D

Q30. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.

(B) not required to be tested

(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research

(D) a scientific theory

Answer: C

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36) :

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This

domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of

a four-quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within

walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as

Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other

structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other

imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty

villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is

unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in

India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts,

it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The

Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily

buried by the grief- stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad

on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to

Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land,

situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the

Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from


the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai

Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial

commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years

after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was

insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he

provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana,

within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah

Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence

indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan

most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire

complex was virtually complete.

Q31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was

brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the

place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur (B) Makrana

(C) Amber (D) Jaipur

Answer: B

Q32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists

(C) Public (D) European travelers

Answer: D

Q33. Point out the true statement from the following:

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.

(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr


(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz


Answer: C

Q34. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad (B) Mumtaz Mahal


(C) Zainabad (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara.

Answer: D

Q35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between

the period

(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 – 1643A.D.

(C) 1632 -1643 A.D. (D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.

Answer: C

Q36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the

Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman (B) Sale Deed

(C) Sale-Purchase Deed (D) None of the above

Answer: A

Q37. In the process of Communication, which one of the following

is in the chronological order?

(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect

(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

Answer: C

Q38. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in

1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant (B) James Augustus Hicky

(C) Lord Cripson (D) A.O. Hume

Answer: B

Q39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of

the Prime Minister

(A) Rajeev Gandhi (B) Narasimha Rao

(C) Indira Gandhi (D) Deve Gowda

Answer: C

Q40. Communication via New media such as computers,


teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment (B) Interactive


(C) Development Communication (D) Communitarian

Answer: B

Q41. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle


(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment

Answer: B

Q42. …………… is important when a teacher communicates with

his/her student

(A) Sympathy (B) Empathy

(C) Apathy (D) Antipathy

Answer: B

Q43. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER

will be represented by



Answer: A

Q44. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played.

Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number

of teams participated in the tournament is

(A) 8 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) 14

Answer: B

Q45. The missing number in the series

40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110 (B) 270

(C) 105 (D) 210

Answer: B


Q46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by

3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is

(A) 18 (B) 24

(C) 33 (D) 36

Answer: C

Q47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the

mean of the remaining numbers is

(A) 30 (B) 85/2

(C) 170/3 (D) 110

Answer: D

Q48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of

the circle will increase by

(A) 20% (B) 30%

(C) 40% (D) 50%

Answer: D

Q49. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among

the following statements will be true

Choose the correct code given below:

(i) All men are honest

(ii) No men are honest

(iii) Some men are not honest

(iv) All men are dishonest


(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and


(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

Answer: B

Q50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace

the question mark.

Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?

(A) Intelligence (B) Marks


(C) Lessons (D) Wisdom

Answer: D

Q51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother

of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?

(A) Wife (B) Sister-in-law

(C) Brother-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law

Answer: B

Q52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing

attitudes or stirring emotions is called

(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive

(C) Stipulative (D) Precisions

Answer: B

Q53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct



(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation

(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of

categorical syllogisms

(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical

syllogism is diagrammed.

(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing

a categorical syllogism


(A) (i) (ii) & (iii) (B) (i) (ii) & (iv)

(C) (ii) (iii) & (iv) (D) (i) (iii) & (iv)

Answer: B

Q54. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) unity in human nature (B) integrity in human nature

(C) uniformity in human nature (D) harmony in human nature

Answer: C

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions


Area Under Major Horticulture Crops

(in lakh hectares)

Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total





53 72 1 187



56 75 1 194



58 78 2 202



61 79 2 207



63 79 2 209

from 55 to 60 :

Q55. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest

rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?

(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07 (B) 2006-07 & 2008-


(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09 (D) 2006-07 & 2007-


Answer: D

Q56. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in

the area under total horticulture are respectively:

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent (B) 30, 38 and 1 percent

(C) 38, 30 and l percent (D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

Answer: A

Q57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of

increase in are during 2005-06 to 2009-10?

(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture


Answer: C

Q58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase

of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture

Answer: B

Q59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and

flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?

(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent

(C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent

Answer: B

Q60. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate

of increase?

(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08

(C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10

Answer: A

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