NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key June 2012

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2012

Q1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the

following types of communication

(A) Visual one way (B) Audio-Visual one way

(C) Audio-Visual two way (D) Visual two way

Answer: C

Q2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication

is located at

(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal

(C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

Answer: B

Q3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the

year

(A) 1926 (B) 1936

(C) 1946 (D) 1956

Answer: B

Q4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is

followed?

(A) NTCS (B) PAL

(C) NTSE (D) SECAM

Answer: B

Q5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity

(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity

(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity

(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

Answer: D

 

Q6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for

(A) Total Rating Points (B) Time Rating Points

(C) Thematic Rating Points (D) Television Rating Points

Answer: D

Q7. Which is the number that comes next in the following

sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, …………

(A) 60 (B) 64

(C) 72 (D) 70

Answer: C

Q8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………

(A) N (B) M

(C) O (D) L

Answer: B

Q9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’;

‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which

digit represents ‘sunny’ ?

(A) 3 (B) 2

(C) 4 (D) 5

Answer: A

Q10. The basis of the following classification is :

‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, ‘books in my library’, ‘blue

things’ and ‘students who work hard’

(A) Common names (B) Proper names

(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Indefinite description

Answer: C

Q11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation

‘is larger than’ is

(A) antisymmetric (B) asymmetrical

(C) intransitive (D) irreflexive

 

Answer: D

Q12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than

ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.

Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.

Choose the correct answer from below :

(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: A

Q13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then

which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code

given below :

  1. “All men are mortal” is true.
  2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
  3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
  4. “All men are mortal” is false.

Code :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3

Answer: B

Q14. Determine the nature of the following definition :

“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.

(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive

(C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

Answer: B

Q15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.

(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be

eating at night.

(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.

 

(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

Answer: B

Q16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic

form.

(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic

form.

(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic

form.

Answer: A

Q17. Reasoning by analogy leads to

(A) certainty (B) definite

conclusion

(C) predictive conjecture (D) surety

Answer: C

Q18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from

the code given below :

  1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
  2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
  3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
  4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.

Code :

(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

Answer: C

Q19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is

between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is

between A and F?

(A) B (B) C

(C) D (D) E

Answer: C

 

Q20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage

must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the

petrol does not alter?

(A) 20% (B) 25%

(C) 30% (D) 33.33%

Answer: A

Q21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less

than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less

than 10, then they may correctly conclude that

(A) y can be exactly determined

(B) y may be either of two values

(C) y may be any of three values

(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions

Answer: A

Q22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours

respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third

at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?

(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon

(C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM

Answer: C

The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of

various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart

given below:

Q23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute

terms in the electricity generation?

 

(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW

(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW

Answer: A

Contrribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms = 97 * 7/100 = 6.79

GW

Q24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in

absolute terms in the electricity generation?

(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW

(C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW

Answer: B

Contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms = 97 * 27/100 =

26.19 GW

Q25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

(A) Phone lines (B) LAN

(C) Internet (D) a Server

Answer: C

Q26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII

value which stands for

(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange

(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

Answer: B

Q27. Which of the following is not a programming language?

(A) Pascal (B) Microsoft Office

(C) Java (D) C++

Answer: B

Q28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal

number is equal to

(A) 3 (B) 5

(C) 8 (D) 10

 

Answer: D

Q29. Internet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System (B) Compiler

(C) Browser (D) IP address

Answer: C

Q30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday

(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail

(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email

(D) One does not need any telephone lines

Answer: C

Q31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

(A) Sulphur di-oxide (B) Ozone

(C) PAN (D) Nitrous oxide

Answer: C

Q32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?

(A) Thermal power plants

(B) Automobiles

(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning

(D) Fertilizers

Answer: C

Q33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?

(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil

(C) Fresh water (D) Salt

Answer: D

Q34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution

indicator in water?

(A) Total dissolved solids (B) Coliform count

(C) Dissolved oxygen (D) Density

Answer: D

 

Q35. S and P waves are associated with

(A) floods (B) wind energy

(C) earthquakes (D) tidal energy

Answer: C

Q36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

List – I List – II

(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami

(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations

(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane

(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism

Codes :

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)

(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)

(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)

(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

Answer: A

Q37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala (B) Shimla

(C) Solan (D) Chandigarh

Answer: B

Q38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council

of Teacher Education.

(A) 04 (B) 05

(C) 06 (D) 08

Answer: A

Q39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and

Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

(A) Freedom of Speech

(B) Right to Equality

 

(C) Right to Freedom of Religion

(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Answer: D

Q40. Who among the following created the office of the District

Collector in India ?

(A) Lord Cornwallis

(B) Warren Hastings

(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation

(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

Answer: B

Q41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

  1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
  2. To develop the scientific temper.
  3. Respect for the Government.
  4. To protect Wildlife.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer: B

Q42. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.

(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.

(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

Answer: D

Q43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged

student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you

like to give him in the class ?

(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.

(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.

(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do

 

anything.

(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

Answer: D

Q44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good

achievement test?

(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity

(C) Ambiguity (D) Validity

Answer: C

Q45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

(A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard

(C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector

Answer: B

Q46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be

correct for writing on the blackboard?

(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.

(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.

(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by

them.

(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

Answer: D

Q47. A teacher can be successful if he/she

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens

(B) imparts subject knowledge to students

(C) prepares students to pass the examination

(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

Answer: D

Q48. Dynamic approach to teaching means

(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective

(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic

(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic

(D) The students should be required to learn through activities

 

Answer: D

Q49. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research (B) Empirical Research

(C) Conceptual Research (D) Fundamental Research

Answer: A

Q50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same

work which one of the following expressions is used?

(A) ibid (B) et.al

(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.

Answer: A

Q51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an

example of a reference drawn from

(A) Vertical study (B) Cross-sectional

study

(C) Time series study (D) Experimental study

Answer: B

Q52. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target groups (B) Group discussions

(C) Show-casing new Research (D) All the above

Answer: D

Q53. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident

(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident

(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.

(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

Answer: A

Q54. Research ethics do not include

(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity

(C) Integrity (D) Objectivity

Answer: B

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm

themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets

Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access

to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy.

But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have

more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a

major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decisionmaking

process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that

the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I

would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see

the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government,

but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a

friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our

People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be

scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a

piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to

Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a

pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work

that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has

sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about Rs 700 crores

which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and

categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate

under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public

authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and

public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

Q55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge

(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923

(C) through openings

(D) by denying public information

Answer: A

 

Q56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process

(B) to make the people aware of the Act

(C) to gain knowledge of administration

(D) to make the people Government friendly

Answer: A

Q57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

(A) to provide power to the civil servants

(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a

friendly, caring and effective Government

(C) a draconian law against the officials

(D) to check the harassment of the people

Answer: B

Q58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

(A) extending power to the executive authorities

(B) combining the executive and legislative power

(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit

(D) educating the people before its implementation

Answer: C

Q59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped

that

(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.

(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.

(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government

(D) All the above

Answer: D

Q60. The transparency and public accountability is the

responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are

(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary

(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive

(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission

(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

 

Answer: D

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