NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2009

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2009

Q1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based

on:

(A) Linguistic expression

(B) Logical presentation

(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read

(D) Comprehension of subject

Answer: D

Q2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?

(A) To make teaching fun-filled

(B) To teach within understanding level of students

(C) For students’ attention

(D) To make students attentive

Answer: B

Q3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

(A) Learning (B) Research

(C) Heredity (D) Explanation

Answer: A

Q4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the

learner to interact?

(A) Use of film

(B) Small group discussion

(C) Lectures by experts

(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV

Answer: B

Q5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?

(A) Attitudes (B) Concepts

 

(C) Knowledge (D) Maturation

Answer: D

Q6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

(A) Through its impartiality (B) Through its reliability

(C) Through its validity (D) All of these

Answer: D

Q7. Action-research is:

(A) An applied research

(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems

(C) A longitudinal research

(D) All the above

Answer: B

Q8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:

(A) Cultural background of the country

(B) Universities

(C) Specific characteristics of the castes

(D) All of these

Answer: A

Q9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the

developmental research?

(A) Philosophical research (B) Action research

(C) Descriptive research (D) All the above

Answer: D

Q10. We use Factorial Analysis:

(A) To know the relationship between two variables

(B) To test the Hypothesis

(C) To know the difference between two variables

(D) To know the difference among the many variables

Answer: C

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

 

While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of

the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society

and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the

most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was

democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy

was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs,

which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.

However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India

was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was

its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected

members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing

opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is

regarded as a hallmark of democracy.

In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is

not possible, it’s rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there

would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the

rest of the society.

Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between

themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a

consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in

majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.

The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply

means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority

opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on

one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side

if there is a difference on some other issue.

It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party

system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the

best method of democratic rule.

Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party

system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties

in India – of more or less equal strength – is a virtual impossibility. Those who

regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into

consideration.

When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups

among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same

 

economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups

within the selected members of Parliament.

There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and

consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class

consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal

strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

Q11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the

independent rulers:

(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society

(B) People were isolated from political affairs

(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making

(D) Law was equal for one and all

Answer: C

Q12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy

practiced in Britain?

(A) End to the rule of might is right.

(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.

(C) It has stood the test of time.

(D) Cooperation between elected members.

Answer: B

Q13. Democracy is practiced where:

(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.

(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.

(C) Representatives of masses.

(D) None of these.

Answer: A

Q14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?

(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.

(B) India gained economically during that period.

(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.

(D) None of these.

Answer: A

 

Q15. Who became the members of the new commercial class

during that time?

(A) British Aristocrats (B) Lord and barons

(C) Political Persons (D) Merchants and artisans

Answer: D

Q16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a

radio link is very popular throughout the world?

(A) TPS (B) Telepresence

(C) Video conference (D) Video teletext

Answer: C

Videoconferencing (VC) is the conduct of a videoconference by a set of

telecommunication technologies which allow two or more locations to

communicate by simultaneous two-way video and audio transmissions. It has

also been called ‘visual collaboration’ and is a type of groupware.

Videoconferencing differs from videophone calls in that it’s designed to serve

a conference or multiple locations rather than individuals.

Q17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?

(A) NDTV24x7 (B) ZEE News

(C) Aajtak (D) Lok Sabha channel

Answer: D

LOK SABHA TELEVISION: is a Parliament Channel mandated to telecast live

the proceedings of the Lok Sabha ? the House of the People of the Indian

Parliament. The Channel also produces and telecasts a whole range of

programmes of general interest on issues relating to democracy, governance,

social, economic and constitutional issues and citizens? concerns. Debates,

discussions and documentaries, as well as programmes on culture and awardwinning

films in different Indian languages are important elements in the

programmes of the channel.

Q18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:

(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism

(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction

(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment

 

(D) Entertainment only

Answer: B

News is not permitted on private FM. Nationally, many of the current FM

players, including the Times of India, Hindustan Times, Mid-Day, and BBC are

essentially newspaper chains or media, and they are making a strong pitch for

news on FM. Private FM stations are allowed to rebroadcast news from All

India Radio, as long as they do so without any changes or additions.The

Supreme Court of India on 17 October 2013 issued a public interest litigation

to the Centre requesting that the rules should be changed to allow FM stations

to broadcast news reports.

Q19. In communication chatting in internet is:

(A) Verbal communication (B) Non verbal communication

(C) Parallel communication (D) Grapevine communication

Answer: C

Communication are of two main parts : One is verbal communication and the

other is non verbal communication.

Communication based on style and purpose we can categorize it into two main

parts, formal and informal communication. We can categorize verbal

communication into two parts, oral communication and written communication.

Oral communication is when two or more parties communicate verbally with

words. The conversation can be short range or long range. Spoken

conversation is of a short range and communicating through a telephone or

voice chat over the internet. The other type is written communication. Written

communication can happen through normal mail, e-mail, or any other form of

documented writing. Non-verbal communication is mostly body language. It is

possible to understand what a person is trying to say or how he/she is feeling.

It is also possible to tell the mood of a person by bodily and facial

expressions. Facial expressions are very important as well. Facial expressions

give out what the person is feeling. The face is the first thing we notice in a

person and the facial muscles give out most of the human expressions. Pictures,

sign boards and photographs are also a part of non-verbal communication.

Q20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using

the codes given below:

List-I List-II

 

(Artists) (Art)

(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist

(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar

(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla

(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: C

Q21. Insert the missing number in the following:

3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48

(A) 37 (B) 40

(C) 38 (D) 45

Answer: C

The Difference between 2 number in series is 5 then 10, 5 then 10.

Therefore after 33 + 5 = 38.

Q22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would

STEPS be written in that code?

(A) SPEST (B) SPSET

(C) SPETS (D) SEPTS

Answer: C

Write Given Code in Reverse order ie STEPS —> SPETS.

Q23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the

basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:

BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?

(A) FHJL (B) RPNL

(C) LNPR (D) LJHF

Answer: No one Option is Correct Answer.

Correct answer is TQNL

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

 

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

Q24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?

(A) Friday (B) Tuesday

(C) Sunday (D) Wednesday

Answer: No one Option is Correct Answer.

Correct answer is Monday

Q25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence.

52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

(A) 27 (B) 34

(C) 43 (D) 48

Answer: B

The series is decreese with order 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11.

Therefore expected series will be 52, 51, 48, 43, 36, 27, 16.

Hence 34 is wrong in seriese there must be 36.

Q26. In a deductive argument conclusion is:

(A) Summing up of the premises

(B) Not necessarily based on premises

(C) Entailed by the premises

(D) Additional to the premises

Answer: C

Q27. ‘No man are mortal’ is contradictory of:

(A) Some man are mortal (B) Some man are not mortal

(C) All men are mortal (D) No mortal is man

Answer: A

Q28. A deductive argument is valid if:

(A) premises are false and conclusion true

(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false

(C) premises are true and conclusion is false

(D) premises are true and conclusion is true

Answer: D

 

Q29. Structure of logical argument is based on:

(A) Formal validity (B) Material truth

(C) Linguistic expression (D) Aptness of examples

Answer: A

Q30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at

North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East.

Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One

man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?

(A) East and West (B) North and West

(C) South and East (D) None of these

Answer: B

Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following Venn diagram in which

there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons,

English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers.

Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and

g.

Q31. If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers,

which of the following is to be selected?

(A) g (B) b

(C) c (D) e

Answer: C

Q32. If you want to select persons, who do not know English and

are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?

(A) e (B) g

(C) b (D) a

 

Answer: B

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35 :

Q33. In which year the quantity of engineering goods’ exports was

maximum?

(A) 2005 (B) 2006

(C) 2004 (D) 2007

Answer: B

Q34. In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by

50 percent compared to the previous year?

(A) 2004 (B) 2007

(C) 2005 (D) 2006

Answer: B

Q35. In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher

than the quantity of previous year?

(A) 2004 (B) 2005

(C) 2006 (D) 2007

Answer: C

Q36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?

(A) a connection to internet (B) a web browser

(C) a web server (D) all of the above

Answer: D

Q37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services

in India?

(A) Essar (B) BPL

(C) Hutchison (D) Airtel

 

Answer: D

Q38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India

from:

(A) Bangalore (B) Sri Harikota

(C) Chennai (D) Ahmedabad

Answer: B

Q39. What is blog?

(A) Online music

(B) Intranet

(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal

(D) A personal or corporate Google search

Answer: C

Q40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

(A) www.jeevansathi.com

(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com

(C) www.shaadi.com

(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com

Answer: D

Q41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of

the probable changes in:

(A) physical characteristics of the environment

(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment

(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment

(D) all the above

Answer: D

Q42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:

(A) nearby water bodies (B) melting

(C) rain fall only (D) sea only

Answer: C

Q43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of

 

earthquakes?

(A) Central Indian Highland (B) Coastal region

(C) Himalayan region (D) Indian desert

Answer: C

Q44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using

the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(Institutes) (Cities)

(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata

(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi

(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad

(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: A

Q45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the

year:

(A) 2005 (B) 2004

(C) 2006 (D) 2007

Answer: B

Q46. The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled on:

(A) Education and National Development

(B) Learning to be adventure

(C) Diversification of Education

(D) Education and socialization in democracy

Answer: A

EDUCATION AND NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT Indian Education

Commission (1964-1966), popularly known as Kothari Commission, was an

ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of

 

the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to

advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India. It

was formed on 14 July 1964 under the chairmanship of Daulat Singh Kothari,

then chairman of the University Grants Commission. The terms of reference of

the commission was to formulate the general principles and guidelines for the

development of education from primary level to the highest and advise the

government on a standardized national pattern of education in India

Q47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?

(A) Delhi University

(B) Bangalore University

(C) Madras University

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: D

When the Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established

in 1985, the prime objective of the legislature was to democratize higher

education and provide educational opportunities to those who could not attend

the conventional face-to-face institutions for various reasons. IGNOU was also

mandated to promote distance education and maintain the quality of distance

education in India. The IGNOU Act also emphasized that IGNOU will use

innovative educational technologies to deliver its degrees.

Q48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as “Code of

Administrators” ?

(A) Part I (B) Part II

(C) Part III (D) Part IV

Answer: D, PART IV : DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY.

Q49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to

Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of

Parliament?

(A) Article 371 A (B) Article 371 B

(C) Article 371 C (D) Article 263

Answer: A

371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland. (1)

Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,? a) no Act of Parliament in

 

respect of? (i) religious or social practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary

law and procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving

decisions according to Naga customary law, (iv) ownership and transfer of

land and its resources, b) the Governor of Nagaland shall have special

responsibility with respect to law and order in the State of Nagaland for so

long as in his opinion internal disturbances occurring in the Naga Hills-

Tuensang Area immediately before the formation of that State continue therein

or in any part thereof and in the discharge of his functions in relation thereto

the Governor shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his

individual judgment as to the action to be taken. c) in making his

recommendation with respect to any demand for a grant, the Governor of

Nagaland shall ensure that any money provided by the Government of India out

of the Consolidated Fund of India for any specific service or purpose is

included in the demand for a grant relating to that service or purpose and not in

any other demand

Q50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good

governance?

(A) Right to information (B) Citizens’ Charter

(C) Social Auditing (D) Judicial Activism

Answer: D

Judicial activism refers to judicial rulings suspected of being based on

personal or political considerations rather than on existing law. The definition

of judicial activism, and which specific decisions are activist, is a

controversial political issue, particularly in the United States. The question of

judicial activism is closely related to constitutional interpretation, statutory

construction, and separation of powers. 3) A social audit is a way of

measuring, understanding, reporting and ultimately improving an organization’s

social and ethical performance. A social audit helps to narrow gaps between

vision/goal and reality, between efficiency and effectiveness

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