NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2008
Q1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase “Friend,
philosopher and guide” because:
(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot
Q2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the
(A) inter personal relationship
(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the students
Q3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:
(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide
(D) becoming a friend to the students
Building rapport with students can be a remarkably effective way to improve
classroom management. But there is some confusion over what rapport is and
how one goes about building it. Rapport is nothing more than a connection you
make with your students based on their positive feelings for you. When they
like you and trust you, and when you in turn like and believe in them, you’ll
form a bond that makes classroom management a lot easier.
Q4. Education is a powerful instrument of:
(A) Social transformation (B) Personal transformation
(C) Cultural transformation (D) All the above
Education is the key to eliminating gender inequality, to reducing poverty, to
creating a sustainable planet, to preventing needless deaths and illness, and to
fostering peace. And in a knowledge economy, education is the new currency
by which nations maintain economic competitiveness and global prosperity.
Education is an investment, and one of the most critical investments we can
make. This is true not only for the United States, but for countries around the
Q5. A teacher’s major contribution towards the maximum selfrealization
of the student is affected through:
(A) Constant fulfilment of the students’ needs
(B) Strict control of class-room activities
(C) Sensitivity to students’ needs, goals and purposes
(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards
Q6. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:
(A) Researcher’s interest (B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance (D) Availability of relevant literature
Q7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?
(A) Cluster sampling (B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling (D) Stratified random sampling
Non-probability sampling is a sampling technique where the samples are
gathered in a process that does not give all the individuals in the population
equal chances of being selected.
Quota sampling is a non-probability sampling technique wherein the
assembled sample has the same proportions of individuals as the entire
population with respect to known characteristics, traits or focused
Q8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:
(A) Survey method (B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies (D) Normative studies
Q9. Field-work based research is classified as:
(A) Empirical (B) Historical
(C) Experimental (D) Biographical
Q10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to
study the prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in
1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006 ?
(A) Cluster sampling (B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling (D) Stratified random sampling
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :
The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but
permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which
classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an
intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped
together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a
rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question.
The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and
equal protection of laws. In the very nature of things the society being
composed of unequals a welfare State will have to strive by both executive
and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their
condition so that the social and economic inequality in the society may be
bridged. This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens
otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state
affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such
legislation is likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article
- The Court realistically appraising the social and economic inequality and
keeping in view the guidelines on which the State action must move as
constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of
classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action
designed to help weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the
society in need of succour. Legislative and executive action may accordingly
be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the
rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute
equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that
Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from
identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law
should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should
be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are
different shall be as though they are the same. It ofcourse means denial of any
special privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well
as the executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out
of an infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of
making special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it
must have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon
which such laws are to operate.
Q11. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is
enunciated in the constitution under Part III, Article
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
Q12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:
(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) absolute equality
(D) special privilege by reason of birth
Q13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be
(A) executive and legislative action (B) universal suffrage
(C) identical treatment (D) none of the
Q14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:
(A) Help weaker sections of the society (B) Provide absolute
(C) Provide identical treatment (D) None of the
Q15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite
variety of human relations, the government:
(A) must have the power of making special laws
(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above
Q16. Communication with oneself is known as:
(A) Group communication (B) Grapevine communication
(C) Interpersonal communication (D) Intrapersonal
Interpersonal refers to relationships or actions that take place between two or
more people while Intrapersonal refers to things that go on exclusively within
Q17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?
(A) NTSE (B) PAL
(C) SECAM (D) NTCS
PAL, short for Phase Alternating Line, is a colour encoding system for
analogue television used in broadcast television systems in most countries
broadcasting at 625-line / 50 field (25 frame) per second (576i). Other
common colour encoding systems are NTSC and SECAM. North America,
most of South America, Japan, South Korea and Taiwan adopted NTSC. Most
of Western Europe, India, Iceland, Australia, parts of Africa and the Middle
East, and a few countries in South America adopted PAL .SECAM was mainly
adopted in France, Eastern Europe and parts of Africa.
There are two types of analog format used to broadcast video signals
throughout the world. Certain parts of world use NTSC, which stands for
National Television System Committee, while other parts of the world use
PAL, which is short for Phase Alternating Line.
Q18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:
(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting (B) Broadcasting Service of
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service (D) All Tndia Broadcasting
All India Radio had formally started functioning in 1936. Prior to this, the
radio broadcasting had started in India under the banner of Indian Broadcasting
Q19. The biggest news agency of India is:
(A) PTI (B) UNI
(C) NANAP (D) Samachar Bharati
Press Trust of India (PTI) is the largest news agency in India.
It is headquartered in New Delhi and is a nonprofit cooperative among more
than 500 Indian newspapers and has 984 full-time employees, as on January 8,
- It employs over 400 journalists and 500 part-time correspondents
located in most of the district headquarters in the country. A few
correspondents are based in major capitals and important business centres on
the world. It provides news coverage and information of the region in both
English and Hindi. Its corporate office is located at Sansad Marg, New Delhi
and registered office in D N Road, Mumbai.
Press Trust of India (PTI) is the largest news agency in India. It is
headquartered in New Delhi and is a nonprofit cooperative among more than
500 Indian newspapers. PTI was registered in 1947 and started functioning in
Q20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:
(A) 1995 (B) 1997
(C) 1999 (D) 2001
The Parliament of India passed an Act to grant this autonomy in 1990, but it
was not enacted until 15 September 1997. Prasar Bharati is India’s largest
public broadcasting agency. It is an autonomous body set up by an Act of
Parliament and comprises Doordarshan Television Network and All India
Radio which were earlier media units of the Ministry of Information and
Prasar Bharati is India’s largest public broadcasting agency. It is an
autonomous body established under the Prasar Bharati Act and came into
existence on 23.11.1997. The objectives of public service broadcasting are
achieved in terms of Prasar Bharati Act through All India Radio and
Doordarshan, which earlier were working as media units under the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
Q21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is
called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A) Sample parameter (B) Inference
(C) Statistics (D) None of these
Q22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact
(A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association
between two variables.
(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.
Q23. The F-test:
(A) is essentially a two tailed test.
(B) is essentially a one tailed test.
(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.
Q24. What will be the next letter in the following series:
DCXW, FGVU, HGTS, …………
(A) AKPO (B) JBYZ
(C) JIRQ (D) LMRS
First two letter is the difference of +2 i.e next 2 character
and last two character is difference of -2 character i.e previous 2.
Therefore After HG TS –> JI RQ
Q25. The following question is based on the diagram given below.
If the two small circles represent formal class-room education and
distance education and the big circle stands for university system of
education, which figure represents the university systems.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
In Figure 2 big circle stands for University system of Education and two
seprate small circle inside the Big circle represent formal class-room
education and distance education.
Q26. The statement, ‘To be non-violent is good’ is a
(A) Moral judgement (B) Factual judgement
(C) Religious judgement (D) Value judgement
Q27. Assertion (A) : Man is a rational being.
Reason (R) : Man is a social being.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q28. Value Judgements are:
(A) Factual Judgements (B) Ordinary Judgements
(C) Normative Judgements (D) Expression of public opinion
Q29. Deductive reasoning proceeds from
(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general
(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Q30. AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for
(A) 1641 (B) 1416
(C) 1441 (D) 1461
A G A R T A L A is written in code as
1 4 1 6 8 1 7 1
Therefore A G R A = 1 4 6 1
Q31. Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source
of population data?
(A) National Family Health Surveys (B) National Sample
(C) Census (D) Demographic
Q32. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to
(A) Sample units must be clearly defined
(B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Q33. If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Friday (D) Saturday
There are 3 leap years in between 1995 and 2007 which are 1996, 2000, 2004.
You have to minus (12 + 3) from Monday.
1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)
1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.
1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
1 leap year has 2 odd days.
From 2007 to 1995 There are 12 Yrs.
1996, 2000 and 2004 are leap years Therefore number of odd days = 3 * 2 = 6
Remaining 9 years have 1 odd day each = 9 * 1 = 9
6 + 9 = 15 , 15 divide by 7 = 1 i.e one day previous of Monday
Hence Sunday is Right Answer.
Q34. Insert the missing number in the following series:
4 16 8 64 ? 256
(A) 16 (B) 24
(C) 32 (D) 20
Square root of 16 is 4,
Square root of 64 is 8,
Therefore Square root of 256 is 16.
Q35. If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would
be its selling price in order to earn a profit of 11% ?
(A) Rs. 222.50 (B) Rs. 267
(C) Rs. 222 (D) Rs. 220
Seling Price (SP) = 100 – 11= 89% of Cost price C.P
178 = C.P *89/100
C.P = 100 *178/89=200
Therefore For 11% profit, the S.P will be S.P = 200 * 111/100= 222 Rs
Solution: Let the cost price (CP) of an article be C
Since there is a loss of 11%,
Therefore, SP = C – 11C/100 = 89C/100
By the problem, 89C/100 = 178
or, C = 178 × 100/89 = 200
therefore, The cost price (CP) of the article = Rs. 200
He should earn a profit of 11 %
therefore, Sell Price (SP) of the article = C +11C/100
= 200 +11× 200/100
Q36. WYSIWYG – describes the display of a document on screen
as it will actually print:
(A) What you state is what you get
(B) What you see is what you get
(C) What you save is what you get
(D) What you suggest is what you get
Q37. Which of the following is not a Computer language?
(A) PASCAL (B) UNIX
(C) FORTRAN (D) COBOL
Q38. A key-board has at least:
(A) 91 keys (B) 101 keys
(C) 111 keys (D) 121 keys
Q39. An E-mail address is composed of:
(A) two parts (B) three parts
(C) four parts (D) five parts
Q40. Corel Draw is a popular:
(A) Illustration programme (B) Programming language
(C) Text programme (D) None of the above
Q41. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the
(A) 1 – 2 KHz (B) 100 – 500 Hz
(C) 10 – 12 KHz (D) 2 – 5 KHz
Q42. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity
(A) decible (B) Hz
(C) Phon (D) Watts/m2
Q43. If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the
maximum sustainable yield:
(A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C) depends on growth rates.
(D) depends on the initial population.
Q44. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:
(A) high temperature (B) strong wind action
(C) heavy rainfall (D) glaciation
Q45. Structure of earth’s system consists of the following:
Match List-I with List-Il and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone) List-li (Chemical Character)
(a) Atmosphere (i) Inert gases
(b) Biosphere (ii) Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c) Hydrosphere (iii) Organic substances, skeleton
(d) Lithosphere (iv) Light silicates
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Q46. NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:
(A) ICSSR (B) CSIR
(C) ATCTE (D) UGC
The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an
organization that assesses and accredits institutions of higher education in
India. It is an autonomous body funded by University Grants Commission of
Government of India headquartered in Bangalore. NAAC was established in
1994 in response to recommendations of National Policy in Education (1986).
This policy was to “address the issues of deterioration in quality of
Q47. National Council for Women’s Education was established in:
(A) 1958 (B) 1976
(C) 1989 (D) 2000
The problems of education of girls and women in the country, acquired a new
significance since the attainment of Independence. The National Committee on
Women’s Education was accordingly set up by the Government in May 1958,
with Shrimati Durgabai Deshmukh as Chairman. The Committee desired ample
provision for school mothers, creches, training of women teachers and
employment facilities for adult women.
Q48. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?
(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute based in
Shimla, India. It was set up by the Ministry of Education, Government of India
in 1964 and it started functioning from October 20, 1965.
Q49. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:
(A) Administration (B) Policy-making
(C) Finance (D) Curriculum development
Autonomy of an institution is the ability to take all decisions regarding
functioning of the institution. For a publicly funded Institution, full autonomy on
finances is clearly not possible. Hence, while most will agree that in decisions
relating to salary etc. government, which gives the funds, will have a say, call
for autonomy almost always implies at least the ability to take all decisions
related to academics.
Q50. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from
the code given below:
List-I (institutions) List-Il (Locations)
(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai
(b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda
(c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur
(d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
1) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University, formerly and more popularly known as
Sagar University, is a Central University in the city of Sagar, the state of
Madhya Pradesh or (MP), India. 2) Shreemati Nathibai Damodar Thackersey
Women’s University (SNDT) is a women’s university in the city of Mumbai,
India. The university headquarters are situated at Churchgate in South Mumbai,
while the main campus is in Santacruz?Juhu area of Mumbai. SNDT has three
campuses: two in Mumbai and one in Pune. 3) India’s internationally renowned
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda (1949) has blossomed from the
Baroda College (1881) which is one of the oldest centres of learning in
western India. 4) Jai Narain Vyas University, also known as University of
Jodhpur, is in Jodhpur city in the Indian state of Rajasthan. Established in 1962
it took over the four colleges of Jodhpur run by the state government.