NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2007

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2007

Q1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

(A) simple (B) more knowledgeable

(C) quicker (D) interesting

Answer: D

Impact of Audio Visual aids:

  • Makes learning easy and permanent.
  • Adds creativity.
  • More involvement of students in classroom.
  • Healthy relation with environment.

Q2. The teacher’s role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students

(B) promote self-learning in students

(C) encourage healthy competition among students

(D) help students to solve their personal problems

Answer: B

Q3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the

most:

(A) punctual

(B) having research aptitude

(C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy

(D) who often amuses his students

Answer: B

Q4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching (B) after the practice-teaching

(C) before the practice-teaching (D) none of the above

Answer: A

Microteaching is organized practice teaching. The goal is to give instructors

 

confidence, support, and feedback by letting them try out among friends and

colleagues a short slice of what they plan to do with their students.

Q5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students

(B) maintaining discipline in the class

(C) lecturing in impressive way

(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

Answer: A

Q6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

(A) t test (B) ANOVA

(C) x2 (D) factorial analysis

Answer: B

Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a collection of statistical models used to

analyze the differences among group means and their associated procedures

(such as “variation” among and between groups), developed by statistician and

evolutionary biologist Ronald Fisher. In the ANOVA setting, the observed

variance in a particular variable is partitioned into components attributable to

different sources of variation. In its simplest form, ANOVA provides a

statistical test of whether or not the means of several groups are equal, and

therefore generalizes the t-test to more than two groups. ANOVAs are useful

for comparing (testing) three or more means (groups or variables) for

statistical significance. It is conceptually similar to multiple two-sample ttests,

but is less conservative (results in less type I error) and is therefore

suited to a wide range of practical problems.

Explanation:

A hypothesis is a speculation or theory based on insufficient evidence that

lends itself to further testing and experimentation. With further testing, a

hypothesis can usually be proven true or false.

A null hypothesis is a hypothesis that says there is no statistical significance

between the two variables in the hypothesis. It is the hypothesis that the

researcher is trying to disprove.

An alternative hypothesis simply is the inverse, or opposite, of the null

hypothesis.

Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a collection of statistical models used to

 

analyze the differences among group means and their associated procedures

(such as “variation” among and between groups), developed by statistician and

evolutionary biologist Ronald Fisher.

Q7. A research problem is feasible only when:

(A) it has utility and relevance

(B) it is researchable

(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge

(D) all the above

Answer: D

Q8. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher

(B) helps those interested in further research

(C) has no relevance to research

(D) all the above

Answer: A

Q9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to

(A) Synthesize new ideals

(B) Expound new principles

(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research

(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics

Answer: B

Q10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an

effect is known as:

(A) Survey Research (B) ‘Ex-post Facto’ Research

(C) Historical Research (D) Summative Research

Answer: B

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth

and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by

wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private

willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business

 

firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic

queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts

at inflated prices and get concessions and privatized firms at low prices. If

corruption is endemic, public officials – both bureaucrats and elected officials

– may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public

benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the

sense of bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure.

Efforts to promote ‘good governance’ must be broader than anti-corruption

campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an

incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and

exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and

permit those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However,

even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to ‘functional’ areas. It will

be a temptation whenever private benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable

response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even

worse situation.

Q11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship

between private wealth and public power are likely to become:

(A) Functional (B) Dysfunctional

(C) Normal functioning (D) Good governance

Answer: B

Q12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

(A) Corruption (B) High taxes

(C) Complicated rules and regulations (D) High prices

Answer: A

Q13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at

many opportunities for

(A) Public benefits (B) Public profit

(C) Private profit (D) Corporate gains

Answer: C

Q14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is

one of the indicatives for:

 

(A) Efficient government (B) Bad governance

(C) Inefficient government (D) Corruption

Answer: A

Q15. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by

promoting:

(A) Private profit (B) Anti-corruption

campaign

(C) Good governance (D) Pay-offs and kick

backs

Answer: C

Q16. Press Council of India is located at:

(A) Chennai (B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata (D) Delhi

Answer: D

Location of Press Council of India, Soochna Bhavan, 8-C.G.O. Complex,

Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003 The Press Council of India is a statutory body

in India that governs the conduct of the print media. It is one of the most

important bodies that sustain democracy, as it has supreme power in regard to

the media to ensure that freedom of speech is maintained.

Explanation:

The Press Council of India was first set up in the year 1966 by the Parliament

on the recommendations of the First Press Commission with the object of

preserving the freedom of the press and of maintaining and improving the

standards of press in India. The present Council functions under the Press

Council Act 1978. It is a statutory body in India that governs the conduct of the

print media. It adjudicates the complaints against and by the press for violation

of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively. Press

Council of India is located at New Delhi. PresentChairman of PCI.

Q17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically

known as:

(A) Photo cutting (B) Photo bleeding

(C) Photo cropping (D) Photo adjustment

Answer: C

 

Photo Cropping refers to the removal of the outer parts of an image to improve

framing, accentuate subject matter or change aspect ratio. Depending on the

application, this may be performed on a physical photograph, artwork or film

footage, or achieved digitally using image editing software. The term is

common to the film, broadcasting, photographic, graphic design and printing

industries.

Q18. Feed-back of a message comes from:

(A) Satellite (B) Media

(C) Audience (D) Communicator

Answer: C

Feedback is your audience?s response; it enables you to evaluate the

effectiveness of your message. If your audience doesn?t understand what you

mean, you can tell by the response and then refine the message.

Receivers are not just passive absorbers of messages; they receive the

message and respond to them. This response of a receiver to sender?s message

is called Feedback.

Q19. Collection of information in advance before designing

communication strategy is known as

(A) Feed-back (B) Feed-forward

(C) Research study (D) Opinion poll

Answer: D

An opinion poll, sometimes simply referred to as a poll, is a survey of public

opinion from a particular sample. Opinion polls are usually designed to

represent the opinions of a population by conducting a series of questions and

then extrapolating generalities in ratio or within confidence intervals.

Q20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

(A) 4:3 (B) 4:2

(C) 3:5 (D) 2:3

Answer: A

The standard TV that’s been around since the mid-50s has an aspect ratio of

4:3. That means the picture is 4 units wide for every three units of height.

Meanwhile, the new HDTV standard is 16:9, which is 16 units of width for

every 9 units of height.

 

Q21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6, —

(A) 5 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given sequence is 9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

Third term decrease by 1 with first,

Fifth term decrease by 1 with third,

Seventh term decrease by 1 with fifth.

Second, Forth, Sixth are remain same i.e 8.

So next will 8.

Q22. If in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3

5 4 7 5 8, how would MADRAS be coded?

(A) 8 3 4 5 3 6 (B) 8 3 4 5 3 8

(C) 8 3 4 5 3 0 (D) 8 3 4 5 3 9

Answer: A

For Example : – If in a certain language PUNCTUAL is coded as 1 6 5 9 8 6 2

3 then

P=1

U=6

N=5

C=9

T=8

U=6

A=2

L=3

Therefore ACTUPULN = 2 9 8 6 1 6 3 5

Q23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the

quantitative data does not explain one of the following

(A) Is ‘X’ related to ‘Y’ ?

(B) How is ‘X’ related to ‘Y’?

(C) How does ‘X’ affect the dependent variable ‘Y’ at different levels of

another independent variable ‘K’ or ‘M’ ?

 

(D) How is ‘X’ by ‘K’ related to ‘M’?

Answer: D

Q24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12,

1979:

(A) Saturday (B) Friday

(C) Sunday (D) Thursday

Answer: B

Explanation:

1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day)

Hence number of odd days in 1 ordinary year = 1.

1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)

Hence number of odd days in 1 leap year= 2.

The year 1979 is an ordinary year, it has 1 odd day. So, the day on 12th January

1980 is one day beyond the day on 12th January, 1979. Here, January 12, 1980

was Saturday. So January 12, 1979 was Friday.

Q25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a

particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday?

(A) 5 (B) 4

(C) 3 (D) None of the above

Answer: A or B

Problem is not clearly specify and possibility of Mondays in a particular

month which ends on wednesday is 4 or 5 both

Q26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot

be true but yet both can be false. Choose the right pair:

(i) All men are mortal

(ii) Some men are mortal

(iii) No man is mortal

(iv) Some men are not mortal

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: D

Q27. A Syllogism must have:

 

(A) Three terms (B) Four terms

(C) Six terms (D) Five terms

Answer: A

Q28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the

relationship between:

(A) Subject and predicate (B) Known and

unknown

(C) Major premise and minor premise (D) Subject and object

Answer: A

Q29. “E” denotes:

(A) Universal Negative Proposition

(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition

(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition

(D) Particular Negative Proposition

Answer: A

Explanation:

Classification of Propositions:

(a) Universal Affirmative Proposition – A type

(b) Universal Negative Proposition – E type

(c) Particular Affirmative Proposition – I type

(d) Particular Negative Proposition – O type

Q30. ‘A’ is the father of ‘C’, and ‘D’ is the son of ‘B’. ‘E’ is the

brother of ‘A’. If ‘C’ is the sister of ‘D’, how is ‘B’ related to ‘E’ ?

(A) daughter (B) husband

(C) sister – in – law (D) brother – in – law

Answer: C

B is sisiter in law of E,

E is brother in law of B,

A and B are parents of C and D.

E is Uncle of C and D.

So B is Sister-in-law of E.

Q31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare

 

choropleth map of India showing urban density of population:

(A) Quartiles (B) Quintiles

(C) Mean and SD (D) Break – point

Answer: A

Q32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a

map the types of crops being grown in a region:

(A) Choropleth (B) Chorochromatic

(C) Choroschematic (D) Isopleth

Answer: A

Q33. A ratio represents the relation between:

(A) Part and Part (B) Part and Whole

(C) Whole and Whole (D) All of the above

Answer: D

Q34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers

is thrice the fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5,

the fourth number is:

(A) 4.5 (B) 5

(C) 2 (D) 4

Answer: C

Give that average of the four numbers is 5.

So addition of 4 numbers is 20.

The average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number

So 6 + 6 + 6 =18.

Hence fourth is 20- 18 =2.

Q35. Circle graphs are used to show:

(A) How various sections share in the whole

(B) How various parts are related to the whole

(C) How one whole is related to other wholes

(D) How one part is related to other parts

Answer: B

A circle is the same as 360°. You can divide a circle into smaller portions. A

part of a circle is called an arc and an arc is named according to its angle.

 

A circle graph, or a pie chart, is used to visualize information and data. A

circle graph is usually used to easily show the results of an investigation in a

proportional manner.

Q36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an

“ASCII” value which stands for:

(A) American Stock Code for information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange

(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

Answer: B

Q37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs

calculation and makes decisions:

(A) Arithmetic Logic Unit (B) Alternating Logic Unit

(C) Alternate Local Unit (D) American Logic Unit

Answer: A

Q38. “Dpi” stands for:

(A) Dots per inch (B) Digits per unit

(C) Dots pixel inch (D) Diagrams per inch

Answer: A

Q39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics,

headlines and photographs is involved in

(A) Deck Top Publishing (B) Desk Top Printing

(C) Desk Top Publishing (D) Deck Top Printing

Answer: C

Q40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known

as:

(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange (B) Dodgy Data

Exchange

(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange (D) Dynamic Data Exchange

Answer: D

 

Q41. Tsunami occurs due to:

(A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans

(B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans

(C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains

(D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts

Answer: B

Q42. Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian

people each year?

(A) Cyclones (B) Floods

(C) Earthquakes (D) Landslides

Answer: B

Q43. Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be

conducted for:

(A) the whole year (B) three seasons excluding

monsoon

(C) any three seasons (D) the worst season

Answer: A

Q44. Sea level rise results primarily due to:

(A) Heavy rainfall (B) Melting of glaciers

(C) Submarine volcanism (D) Seafloor spreading

Answer: B

Q45. The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:

(i) Buoyancy

(ii) Atmospheric stability

(iii) Momentum of exhaust gases

Identify the correct code

(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: B

Q46. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen (B) Successful businessman

 

(C) Popular teacher (D) Efficient manager

Answer: A

Value education is the process by which people give values to others. It can be

an activity that can take place in any organisation during which people are

assisted by others, who may be older, in a position of authority or are more

experienced, to make explicit those values underlying their own behaviour, to

assess the effectiveness of these values and associated behaviour for their own

and others’ long term well-being and to reflect on and acquire other values and

behaviour which they recognise as being more effective for long term wellbeing

of self and others. Values education can take place at home, as well as in

schools, colleges, universities, jails and voluntary youth organisations. There

are two main approaches to values education, some see it as inculcating or

transmitting a set of values which often come from societal or religious rules

or cultural ethics while others see it as a type of Socratic dialogue where

people are gradually brought to their own realisation of what is good

behaviours.

Q47. Networking of libraries through electronic media is known

as:

(A) Inflibnet (B) Libinfnet

(C) Internet (D) HTML

Answer: A

Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre is an Autonomous

Inter-University Centre (IUC) of University Grants Commission (UGC)

involved in creating infrastructure for sharing of library and information

resources and services among Academic and Research Institutions.

INFLIBNET works collaboratively with Indian university libraries to shape

the future of the academic libraries in the evolving information environment.

INFLIBNET is involved in modernizing university libraries in India and

connecting them as well as information centres in the country through a nationwide

high speed data network using the state-of-art technologies for the

optimum utilisation of information. INFLIBNET is set out to be a major player

in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researchers in

India The primary objectives of INFLIBNET are: To promote and establish

communication facilities to improve capability in information transfer and

access, that provide support to scholarship, learning, research and academic

 

pursuit through cooperation and involvement of agencies concerned. To

establish INFLIBNET: Information and Library Network a computer

communication network for linking libraries and information centres in

universities, deemed to be universities, colleges, UGC information centres,

institutions of national importance and R & D institutions, etc. avoiding

duplication of efforts.

Q48. The University which telecasts interactive educational

programmes through its own channel is

(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad

(B) I.G.N.O.U.

(C) University of Pune

(D) Annamalai University

Answer: B

The Indira Gandhi National Open University, known as IGNOU, is a distance

learning national university located in IGNOU road, Maidan Garhi, New

Delhi, India. Named after former Prime Minister of India Indira Gandhi, the

university was established in 1985, when the Parliament of India passed the

Indira Gandhi National Open University Act, 1985. IGNOU is run by the

central government of India. IGNOU, the largest university in the world with

over 4 million students, was founded to impart education by means of distance

and open education, provide higher education opportunities particularly to the

disadvantaged segments of society, encourage, coordinate and set standards for

distance and open education in India and strengthen the human resources of

India through education.

Q49. The Government established the University Grants

Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year:

(A) 1980 (B) 1948

(C) 1950 (D) 1956

Answer: D

The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up

by the Indian Union government in 1956, and is charged with coordination,

determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides

recognition to universities in India, and disburses funds to such recognized

universities and colleges. Prof. Ved Prakash is the incumbent Chairman of

 

UGC, India. Its headquarters is in New Delhi, and 6 regional centres in Pune,

Bhopal, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Bangalore.

Q50. Universities having central campus for imparting education

are called

(A) Central Universities (B) Deemed Universities

(C) Residential Universities (D) Open Universities

Answer: A

A Central University or a Union University in India is established by Act of

Parliament and are under the purview of the Department of Higher Education

in the Union Human Resource Development Ministry. In general, universities

in India are recognised by the University Grants Commission (UGC), which

draws its power from the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. In

addition, 15 Professional Councils are established, controlling different

aspects of accreditation and coordination. Central universities, in addition, are

covered by the Central Universities Act, 2009, which regulates their purpose,

powers governance etc., and established 12 new universities. The list of

central universities published by the UGC includes 46 central universities as

on 20 May 2015.

Go to home page of NTA UGC JRF NET Previous Question Papers with Key

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *