NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2006

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on June 2006

Q1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill?

(A) Black Board writing (B) Questioning

(C) Explaining (D) All the above

Answer: D

All of the above are the teaching skills without them a teacher is like a without

gun in a battalefield. Basic teaching skills

Setting the scene – make sure that your students are comfortable and ready to

start learning

Being student centred – do you know what the students want to learn in each

session?

Assessing prior knowledge – check what the students know already

Asking questions – keep your questions straightforward, but try and probe

deeper levels of knowledge. Give the students enough time to answer

Checking understanding – make sure that the pitch and pace of the session is

right

Using visual aids – it is worth taking time to find these, and using flip charts

and OHPs wherever possible

Setting homework – vital to promote life-long learning, but check learning

objectives and learning strategy are reasonable and ask students to present

their work

Summarising and closing a session –don’t give new information, and remind

students about next week’s topic

Q2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach.

(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.

(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.

(D) Teachers are born.

Answer: B

Teacher does not play only a information mongering role in the classroom but

 

to instill and infuse the inspiration in the students in order to bring desirable

changes in future and make him an ideal citizen

Q3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:

(A) Megasthanese (B) Fahiyan

(C) Huan Tsang (D) Kalhan

Answer: D

Kalhan as a historian: Kalhan is an important historian in Indian history. The

12th century A.D.Kashmiri poet, Kalhan, wrote “Rajtarangini” – the river of

kings. Which has been of great value for the study of the history of Kashmir.

This history of his native land is in verse and the language is Sanskrit. Out of

the Sanskrit writings, Rajtarangini is one of the foremost historical writing.

Q4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.

(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.

(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a

particular university.

(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a

particular university.

Answer: A

Curriculum is wider term consisting academic and non-academic part of all

activities within the school premises. The syllabus belongs to only its

academic part pertaining to C/R teaching-learning process.

Syllabus is the document that contains all the portion of the concepts covered

in a subject.

Curriculum is the overall content, taught in an educational system or a course.

Syllabus is a Greek term. While Curriculum is a Latin term.

Syllabus is Set for A subject while Curriculum A course.

Syllabus is Descriptive while Curriculum is Prescriptive.

Syllabus Scope is Narrow while Curriculum scope is Wide.

Syllabus Set out by Exam board while Curriculum set out by Government or

the administration of school, college or institute.

Syllabus Term is a fixed term, normally a year while Curriculum term is Till

the course lasts.

Syllabus Varies from teacher to teacher while Curriculum Same for all

 

teachers.

Q5. Which of the two given options is of the level of

understanding?

(I) Define noun.

(II) Define noun in your own words.

(A) Only I (B) Only II

(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Human cognition is having 3 levels of thinking process viz. Memory Level ;

Understanding Level; and Reflective Level. Among these, Memory level is

related to Recall and Recognition of the concept but its higher level is

associated with ASSIMILATION and ABSORPTION of the content hence the

option 2 is reflects the understanding level in clare terms.

Q6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research

in modern society?

(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.

(II) to discover new things.

(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.

(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources

with objectivity.

(A) IV, II and I (B) I, II and III

(C) I and III (D) II, III and IV

Answer: A

Option 1 is most suitable because in modern society, the research has 3 basic

roles. 1) The students whether in pure sciences/social sciences have been

trained in scientific methodology in order to keep/develop the adequate

potentiality of scientific Attitude towards life, man and society. That’s why a

realistic training has been imparted in Labs/Fieldwork/Through preparation of

reports. 2) It is an era of vertical progress in science and only the person

having scientific bent of mind may find himself more interactive/manipulative

in the ongoing society. 3) The task of research is also to satisfy timeless

inquisitiveness of human mind. Therefore, it is also having discovery oriented

apporach

 

Q7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and

select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Interviews) List – II (Meaning)

(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach

(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be

answered

(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience

(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question

(v) non-directive

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)

(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)

Answer: A

Because : 1) Structured interview is having everything preplanned in advanced

like- interviewer plan, Time, No of questions to be asked etc.

2) Unstructured interview as its name suggest and just opposite to above have

full fledged flexibility on the part of interviewer like-Place. Tim, open/closed

ended Questions on limited to formal talks.

3) Focused interview in some-what detective type conversation to arrive at

some definite conclusion related to taboos/problems/performances etc.

4) Clinical interview is conducted for diagnosing problems whether in

conscious/unconscious state of human mind in order to provide some sort of

remedial programme.

Q8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary

research?

(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.

(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.

(C) To over simplify the problem of research.

(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.

Answer: A

Inter-disciplinary approach of research is the latest innovation in the field and

 

believes that the elements of scientific phenomenon must be dealt in integrated

form instead of disintegrated form to bring out the concept in its HOLISTIC

point of view. For example, Student school problems may be surveyed by a

team of researchers to dig out its depth like an Educationist, Class-room

teacher, Doctor Clinical Psychologist, Counselor, Guidance worker. It gives a

detailed mapping plan of all the difficulties lying with the students

simultaneously.

Q9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:

(A) improve data interpretation (B) eliminate spurious

relations

(C) confirm triangulation (D) introduce new

variables

Answer: B

aims of the scientific method in research is: Observe and Describe Predict

Determination of the Causes Explain The aims of research can then be finetuned,

or may serve to open up new areas of interest. Either way, the store of

human knowledge has been enriched and increased.

Q10. The depth of any research can be judged by:

(A) title of the research.

(B) objectives of the research.

(C) total expenditure on the research.

(D) duration of the research.

Answer: B

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for,

and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections

to the offices of the President and the Vice – President of India are vested in the

Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.

Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive

interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the

constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from

his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme

Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage

 

after his appointment.

In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the

Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed

by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation,

electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be

furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the

election authorities under the commission.

Q11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:

(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.

(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.

(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.

(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.

Answer: D

Q12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an

independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No. :

(A) 324 (B) 356

(C) 246 (D) 161

Answer: A

Q13. Independence of the Commission means:

(A) have a constitutional status. (B) have legislative powers.

(C) have judicial powers. (D) have political powers.

Answer: A

Q14. Fair and free election means:

(A) transparency (B) to maintain law

and order

(C) regional considerations (D) role for pressure groups

Answer: B

Q15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his

office under Article :

(A) 125 (B) 352

(C) 226 (D) 324

 

Answer: D

Q16. The function of mass communication of supplying

information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal

developments is known as:

(A) content supply (B) surveillance

(C) gratification (D) correlation

Answer: A

The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the

processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as Content

supply

Q17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans,

animals and machines is known as:

(A) cybernetics (B) reverse communication

(C) selectivity study (D) response analysis

Answer: A

Cybernetics is the study of communication and control processes in living

organisms and machines. Cybernetics analyzes the ability of humans, animals,

and some machines to respond to or make adjustments based upon input from

the environment. This process of response or adjustment is called feedback or

automatic control. Feedback helps people and machines control their actions

by telling them whether they are proceeding in the right direction.

Q18. Networked media exist in inter-connected:

(A) social environments (B) economic environments

(C) political environments (D) technological environments

Answer: D

External factors in technology that impact business operations. Changes in

technology affect how a company will do business. A business may have to

dramatically change their operating strategy as a result of changes in the

technological environment.

Q19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and

media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as:

(A) online communication (B) integrated media

 

(C) digital combine (D) convergence

Answer: D

Technological convergence is the tendency that as technology changes,

different technological systems sometimes evolve toward performing similar

tasks.

Digital convergence refers to the convergence of four industries into one

conglomerate, ITTCE (Information Technologies, Telecommunication,

Consumer Electronics, and Entertainment).

Telecommunications convergence, network convergence or simply

convergence are broad terms used to describe emerging telecommunications

technologies, and network architecture used to migrate multiple

communications services into a single network. Specifically this involves the

converging of previously distinct media such as telephony and data

communications into common interfaces on single devices, such as most smart

phones can make phone calls and search the web.

Q20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer

programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described

as:

(A) man-machine speak (B) binary chat

(C) digital talk (D) interactivity

Answer: D

In computers, interactivity is the dialog that occurs between a human being (or

possibly another live creature) and a computer program. (Programs that run

without immediate user involvement are not interactive; they’re usually called

batch or background programs.) Games are usually thought of as fostering a

great amount of interactivity. However, order entry applications and many

other business applications are also interactive, but in a more constrained way

(offering fewer options for user interaction).

Q21. Insert the missing number:

16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34, ?

(A) 19/35 (B) 19/30

(C) 18/35 (D) 18/30

Answer: D

16/32 then 15/33 means -1/+1,

 

17/31 means +2/-2,

14/34 means -3/+3

next +4/-4 i.e 18/30

Q22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on

3rd November 1994?

(A) Thursday (B) Sunday

(C) Tuesday (D) Saturday

Answer: A

Form 3rd November to 30 November no of days = 28

1st Dec to 31st December no of days = 31

1st Jan to 31st Jan no of days = 31

1st feb to 28 feb no of days = 28

1st march to 20 March no of days = 20

Total no of days 28 + 31+ 31 + 28 + 20 = 138

Therefore, 138 divide by 7 remaining 5

i.e 5 days back form 1) Monday 2) Sunday, 3) Saturday, 4) Friday,

5) Thursday,

Q23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The

largest of these numbers is:

(A) 36 (B) 32

(C) 30 (D) 28

Answer: C

Four consecutive even number = x, x+2,x+4,x+6.

According to question, x+x+2x+4x+6/4=27.

4x+12/4 = 27

4x =108 – 12=96.

x=96/4=24. Hence , The largest number =x+4= 24+6=30. The numbers are 24,

26 28, and 30 , which addition is 108 which average is 27, So biggest is 30

Q24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN

be written in the same code?

(A) VNLDM (B) FHQKN

(C) XPNFO (D) VLNDM

Answer: A

 

Decode the CODE with next Alphabet of Code. i.e A with B, B with C.

Q25. At what time between 4 and 5 O’clock will the hands of a

watch point in opposite directions?

(A) 45 min. past 4 (B) 40 min. past 4

(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 (D) 54 6/11 min. past 4

Answer: D

Q26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on

statement given below?

Statement: Most teachers are hard working.

Conclusions:

(I) Some teachers are hard working.

(II) Some teachers are not hard working.

(A) Only (I) is implied

(B) Only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied

(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

Answer: C

Q27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement

in Indian Parliament?

(A) Any MLA (B) Chief of Army

Staff

(C) Solicitor General of India (D) Mayor of Delhi

Answer: C

The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for India,

who is the Indian government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in

the Supreme Court of India. The Solicitor General of India is appointed for the

period of 3 years. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary law officer

of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several

Additional Solicitors General of India. Ranjit Kumar is the present Solicitor

General who was appointed so on 6 June 2014. Like the Attorney General for

India, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General advise the

Government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law

 

Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972. However, unlike the post of

Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of

the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional

Solicitors General are merely statutory.

Q28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on

statement given below?

Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.

Conclusions:

(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.

(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.

(A) only (I) is implied

(B) only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied

(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

Answer: B

Q29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks

(B) increases the weight of the overburden

(C) enhances chemical weathering

(D) is a universal solvent

Answer: B

A landslide is a geological phenomenon that includes a wide range of ground

movements.

Rockfalls, deep failure of slopes and shallow debris flows were common.

Landslides can occur in offshore, coastal and onshore environments.

Natural causes of landslides include:

1) Groundwater (pore water) pressure acting to destabilize the slope

2) Loss or absence of vertical vegetative structure, soil nutrients, and soil

structure.

3) Erosion of the toe of a slope by rivers or ocean waves weakening of a slope

through saturation by snow melt, glaciers melting, or heavy rains.

4) earthquakes adding loads to barely stable slope earthquake-caused

liquefaction destabilizing slopes

5) volcanic eruptions

 

6) Landslides are aggravated by human activities, such as deforestation,

cultivation and construction, which destabilize the already fragile slopes.

7) vibrations from machinery or traffic.

8) blasting

Q30. Direction for this question:

Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i)

and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following

conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the

four response alternatives given below the conclusion :

Statements:

(a) all businessmen are wealthy.

(b) all wealthy people are hard working.

Conclusions:

(i) All businessmen are hard working.

(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy

(A) Only (i) follows

(B) Only (ii) follows

(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows

Answer: A

Q31. Using websites to pour out one’s grievances is called:

(A) cyberventing (B) cyber ranting

(C) web hate (D) web plea

Answer: A

Q32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with

very little relevant information is termed:

(A) poor recall (B) web crawl

(C) poor precision rate (D) poor web response

Answer: A

Q33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

(A) virtual reality (B) fuzzy logic

(C) bluetooth technology (D) value added networks

 

Answer: D

Q34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is

called:

(A) voice net (B) voice telephone

(C) voice line (D) voice portal

Answer: C

Q35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed

live casting is called:

(A) virtual video (B) direct broadcast

(C) video shift (D) real-time video

Answer: D

Q36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?

(A) Tripura (B) Meghalaya

(C) Mizoram (D) Manipur

Answer: A

The Seven Sister states are the contiguous states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,

Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura in northeastern India.

TRIPURA: A SMALL STATE OF NORTH-EAST INDIA

Tripura, in northeastern India is the third smallest state, after Sikkim and Goa.

Tripura was ruled by kings of the Manikya dynasty until 1949 when it became

part of the Indian Union

Area : 10,491 Sq.Km.

Meghalaya —–> 22,429 Sq.Km

Manipur ———> 22,327 Sq.Km

Mizoram ——-> 21,087 Sq.Km

Q37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:

(A) high evaporation

(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami

(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells

(D) seepage of sea water

Answer: D

With increasing exploitation of ground water, seepage of seawater into the

 

earth takes place, reducing sea water level.

Coastal environment plays a vital role in nation’s economy by virtue of the

resources, productive habitats and rich biodiversity. India has a coastline of

about 7,500 kms. The coastline of Tamil Nadu has a length of about 1076 kms

constitutes about 15% of the total coastal length of India and stretches along the

Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea.

Q38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of

Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these

two rivers:

(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys

(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west

(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west

(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east

Answer: A

In the Deccan region, most of the major river systems flowing generally in east

direction fall into Bay of Bengal. The major east flowing rivers are Godavari,

Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi, etc. Narmada and Tapti are major West flowing

rivers.

Q39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the

Godavari delta because of:

(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods

(B) inundation of land by sea water

(C) traditional agriculture practices

(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

Answer: A

The Mahanadi was notorious for its devastating floods for much of recorded

history. Thus it was called ‘the sorrow of Orissa’. However the construction of

the Hirakud Dam has greatly altered the situation. The Godavari is the second

longest river in India after the river Ganges. The frequent drying up of the

Godavari river in the drier months has been a matter of great concern.

Indiscriminate damming along the river has been cited as an obvious reason.

Q40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is

set up by the MHRD Government of India?

 

(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi

(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore

(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi

(D) India International Centre, New Delhi

Answer: C

The MHRD is responsible for the development of human resources. The

ministry is divided into two departments: the Department of School Education

and Literacy, which deals with primary and secondary education, adult

education and literacy, and the Department of Higher Education, which deals

with university education, technical education, scholarship etc. The erst while

Ministry of Education now functions under these two departments, as of 26

September 1985. National Bal Bhavan is an institution which aims at

enhancing the creative potential of children by providing them various

activities, opportunities and common platform to interact, experiment, create

and perform according to their age, aptitude and ability. It offers a barrier-free

environment with immense possibilities of innovation, minus any stress or

strain, it caters to children between the age group of 5 to 16 years. Bal Bhavan

is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development

(MHRD).

Q41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: A

Q42. ‘SITE’ stands for:

(A) System for International technology and Engineering

(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(C) South Indian Trade Estate

(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering

Answer: B

SITE : Satellite Instructional Television Experiment ( Indian Space Research

Organisation). The SITE was an experimental satellite communications project

 

launched in India in 1975, designed jointly by NASA and the Indian Space

Research Organization (ISRO). The project made available informational

television programmes to rural India. The main objectives of the experiment

were to educate the poor people of India on various issues via satellite

broadcasting, and also to help India gain technical experience in the field of

satellite communications. The experiment ran for one year from 1 August 1975

to 31 July 1976, covering more than 2400 villages in 20 districts of six Indian

states and territories. (Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh,

Orissa, Rajasthan)

Q43. What is the name of the Research station established by the

Indian Government for ‘Conducting Research at Antarctic?

(A) Dakshin Gangotri (B) Yamunotri

(C) Uttari Gangotri (D) None of the above

Answer: A

The Indian Antarctic Program is a multi-disciplinary, multi-institutional

program under the control of the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean

Research, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. It was initiated in

1981 with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica. The program gained global

acceptance with India’s signing of the Antarctic Treaty and subsequent

construction of the Dakshin Gangotri Antarctic research base in 1983,

superseded by the Maitri base from 1990. Under the program, atmospheric,

biological, earth, chemical, and medical sciences are studied by India, which

has carried out 30 scientific expeditions to the Antarctic as of 14 October 2010

and is currently planning to build an additional research station in the region

named Bharati and thus India is all set to join the elite group of nine countries

which have multiple bases in Antarctica.

Q44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:

(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy

(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education

(C) Department of Women and Child Development

(D) All the above

Answer: D

The Ministry of Human Resource Development is responsible for the

development of human resources.

 

The ministry is divided into two departments: the Department of School

Education and Literacy, which deals with primary and secondary education,

adult education and literacy, and the Department of Higher Education, which

deals with university education, technical education, scholarship etc.

The erstwhile Ministry of Education now functions under these two

departments, as of 26 September 1985. The ministry is headed by the cabinetranked

Minister of HRD, a member of the Council of Ministers. The

department is divided into eight bureaus, and most the work of the department

is handled through over 100 autonomous organisations under the these bureaus.

University and Higher Education; Minorities Education, UGC, Education

Research and Development Organisation (ERDO)

Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) Indian Council of Philosophical

Research (ICPR)

Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (IIAS), Shimla Technical Education All

India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) Council of Architecture (COA)

4 Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs) (Allahabad, Gwalior,

Jabalpur and Kancheepuram) 3 School of Planning and Architecture (SPAs) 16

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) 5 Indian Institutes of Science Education

and Research (IISERs) 13 Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs) [9] 30

National Institutes of Technology (NITs) Sant Longowal Institute of

Engineering and Technology North Eastern Regional Institute of Science and

Technology (NERIST)

National Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE) 4 National Institutes of

Technical Teachers? Training & Research (NITTTRs)

Q45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:

(A) With the prior permission of the President.

(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.

(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.

(D) At the request of two or more States.

Answer: D

If the legislatures of two or more States pass a resolution to the effect that it is

desirable to have a parliamentary law in any matter in the State List, then the

Parliament can make law for those States (Article 252).

 

The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various

sports during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question

Number 46 to 50.

Q46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of

expenditure on hockey is:

(A) 1:15 (B) 1:1

(C) 15:1 (D) 3:20

Answer: B

Total expenditure on football is 15%

Total expenditure on Hocky is 15 %

Therefore, The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure

on hockey is 15 % : 15 % i.e 1:1

Q47. If the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs.

1,20,000,00 how much was spent on basket ball?

(A) Rs. 9,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000

(C) Rs. 12,00,000 (D) Rs. 15,00,000

Answer: D

Total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 i.e 100 5

total expenditure on Basket Ball is 12.5 %

i.e 12.5 % of 1,20,000,00 = 1,20,000,00 * 12.5 /100 = 15,00,000

Q48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country

is :

(A) Hockey (B) Football

(C) Cricket (D) Tennis

Answer: C

Cricket 25 %, Football 15 %, Hockey 15 %, Golf 12.5 %, Basket Ball 12.5

%, Tennis 10 % and other 10 %.

 

Q49. Out of the following country’s expenditure is the same on :

(A) Hockey and Tennis (B) Golf and Basket ball

(C) Cricket and Football (D) Hockey and Golf

Answer: B

Cricket 25 %, Football 15 %, Hockey 15 %, Golf 12.5 %, Basket Ball 12.5

%, Tennis 10 % and other 10 %.

Q50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs.

1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey together was:

(A) Rs. 60,00,000 (B) Rs. 50,00,000

(C) Rs. 37,50,000 (D) Rs. 25,00,000

Answer: A

If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000.

The expenditure on cricket is 25 % i.e 1,50,00,000 * 25 /100 = 3750000.

The expenditure on Hockey is 15 % i.e 1,50,00,000 * 15 /100 = 2250000.

Total Expenture on Cricket and Hockey = 3750000 + 2250000 = 6000000.

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