NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2011
Q1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping (B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting (D) Photo colour adjustment
Q2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward
studies are conducted by
(A) Audience (B) Communicator
(C) Satellite (D) Media
Q3. In which language the newspapers have highest
(A) English (B) Hindi
(C) Bengali (D) Tamil
Q4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 4
Q5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication (B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication (D) Intrapersonal Communication
Q6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
Q7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76 (B) 74
(C) 75 (D) 50
Q8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X (B) Y
(C) Z (D) A
Q9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and
‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the
following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 4
Q10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’,
‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names
Q11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time
it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical (B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical (D) transitive
Q13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false,
then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the
codes given below :
- “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
- “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
- “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
- “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Q14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.10,000.
(A) persuasive (B) precising
(C) lexical (D) stipulative
Q15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
Q16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
Q17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
Q18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from
the codes given below.
- Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
- A sound argument may be invalid.
- A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
- A statement may be true or false.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4
Q19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of
the square increases by
(A) 60 % (B) 40 %
(C) 196 % (D) 96 %
Q20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be
switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be
(A) 102 (B) 1023
(C) 210 (D) 10 !
Q21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with
(A) 100 (B) 110
(C) 120 (D) 180
Q22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5
newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number
of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30 (B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5
The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart
given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various
sectors is indicated. Answer questions 23 & 24.
Q23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt
Domestic sector emission = 5 * 15/100 = 0.75 mmt.
Q24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal
power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt
Combined % of emmision of CO2 from thermal and transport sector = 30 + 35
= 65 %
Required emmission = 5 * 65/100 = 3.25 mmt
Q25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile
(A) Windows Vista (B) Android
(C) Windows XP (D) All of the above
Q26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the
following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16
Q27. High level programming language can be converted to
machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Q28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program (B) high level program
(C) web page (D) web server
Q29. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System (B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server
Q30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits
required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Q31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory
tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols
Q32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the
(A) Oxides of nitrogen (B)
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Q33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum
potential in India?
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy
Q34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants
Q35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident
Q36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Q37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values (B) the social values
(C) the political values (D) the economic
Q38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University
Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07
(C) 08 (D) 09
Q39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Q40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Commissions and Committees) (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Q41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political
parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Q42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Q43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the
students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
Q44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his
teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Q45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb
the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role
as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Q46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard (B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope (D) Globe
Q47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Q48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
Q49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law (B) canon
(C) postulate (D) supposition
Q50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of
nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you
(A) Area Sampling (B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling (D) Quota Sampling
Q51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research (B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research (D) Descriptive Research
Q52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures (B) multiple target
(C) showcase new theories (D) hands on training/experience
Q53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph (B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram
Q54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn.
Nos. 55 to 60) :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development,
consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This
inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred
perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the
century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of
enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be
harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we
are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is).
The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto
‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever
new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one
certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself
has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed
the non – materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the
scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the
bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new
meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value)
coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be
Q55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism (B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development
Q56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is (B) What ought to be
(C) What can be (D) Where it is
Q57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism
Q58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Q59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive (B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic (D) Optional
Q60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material (B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance (D) humans are irresponsible