NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2010

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2010

Q1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in

quantitative terms?

(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status

(C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude

Answer: D

Q2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of

dengue fever. His research would be classified as

(A) Descriptive Survey (B) Experimental Research

(C) Case Study (D) Ethnography

Answer: B

Q3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of

(A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance

(C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling

Answer: A

Q4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study

(A) Vocational Interest (B) Professional

Competence

(C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation

Answer: C

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :

It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all

nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented

the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it

as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and

the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he

became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of

 

Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful

movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nationwide

action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing

so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied

and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a

people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of

united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village

and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and

hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The

time was ripe for it, of course, and

circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader

is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was

that leader, and he released

many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who

experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that

came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance

because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could

reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology

functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions

and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not

think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences.

But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass

consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the

Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they

indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and

activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of

personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise

him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her

sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him

by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

 

Q5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?

(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for

independence.

(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.

(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.

(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class

movement.

Answer: B

Q6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among

the Indian masses was

(A) Physical (B) Cultural

(C) Technological (D) Psychological

Answer: D

Q7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a

working-class movement was wrong because it was a

(A) historical movement (B) voice of the Indian people

(C) bourgeois movement (D) movement represented by Gandhi

Answer: C

Q8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he

could

(A) preach morality (B) reach the heart of

Indians

(C) see the conflict of classes (D) lead the Indian National

Congress

Answer: B

Q9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they

did not fit in with

(A) objective conditions of masses

(B) the Gandhian ideology

(C) the class consciousness of the people

(D) the differences among masses

 

Answer: A

Q10. The author concludes the passage by

(A) criticising the Indian masses

(B) the Gandhian movement

(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi

(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians

Answer: C

Q11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of

communication – points are referred to as

(A) Networked media (B) Connective media

(C) Nodal media (D) Multimedia

Answer: A

Network media refers to digital media mainly used in computer networks such

as the Internet. Network media is essentially driven by technological

development, emerging from the internet as a non-centralized medium in the

late nineties, the term has more recently begun to be applied to both the arts

and industry. The following features distinguish Network Media from classical

media, such as broadcast media and the printed press: Network Media is

typically democratic and decentralized. The audience can also be the

contributors. Network Media often requires the involvement of computers as

an input/output device. Network media requires a community to participate and

consume.

Q12. The information function of mass communication is described

as

(A) diffusion (B) publicity

(C) surveillance (D) diversion

Answer: C

Surveillance is the monitoring of the behavior, activities, or other changing

information, usually of people for the purpose of influencing, managing,

directing, or protecting them. This can include observation from a distance by

means of electronic equipment (such as CCTV cameras), or interception of

electronically transmitted information (such as Internet traffic or phone calls);

and it can include simple, relatively no- or low-technology methods such as

 

human intelligence agents and postal interception. The word surveillance

comes from a French phrase for “watching over” (“sur” means “from above”

and “veiller” means “to watch”)

Q13. An example of asynchronous medium is

(A) Radio (B) Television

(C) Film (D) Newspaper

Answer: D

Q14. In communication, connotative words are

(A) explicit (B) abstract

(C) simple (D) cultural

Answer: D

A connotation is a commonly understood cultural or emotional association that

some word or phrase carries, in addition to the word’s or phrase’s explicit or

literal meaning, which is its denotation. A connotation is frequently described

as either positive or negative, with regards to its pleasing or displeasing

emotional connection.

Q15. A message beneath a message is labelled as

(A) embedded text (B) internal text

(C) inter-text (D) sub-text

Answer: D

Subtext undertone is any content of a creative work which is not announced

explicitly by the characters or author, but is implicit or becomes something

understood by the observer of the work as the production unfolds. Subtext can

also refer to the thoughts and motives of the characters which are only covered

in an aside. Subtext is content underneath the dialogue. Under dialogue, there

can be conflict, anger, competition, pride, showing off, or other implicit ideas

and emotions. Subtext is the unspoken thoughts and motives of characters?what

they really think and believe.

Q16. In analog mass communication, stories are

(A) static (B) dynamic

(C) interactive (D) exploratory

Answer: A

 

Analog mass communication is the one way process of transferring message to

the receiver, or audience. Here the audience is large so they utilize analog

media which was originally used in audio recording that was analogous to the

count it was recreating. Here the contents can be only linear and static not

dynamic

Q17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words

ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words

which have a similar relationship:

(A) often : rarely (B) frequently :

occasionally

(C) constantly : frequently (D) intermittently : casually

Answer: A

Q18. Find the wrong number in the sequence :

52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

(A) 27 (B) 34

(C) 43 (D) 48

Answer: B

Q19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then

PAT is written in the same code as

(A) 30 (B) 37

(C) 39 (D) 41

Answer: B

Q20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the

basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :

AF : IK : : LQ : ?

(A) MO (B) NP

(C) OR (D) TV

Answer: D

Q21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 5

 

Answer: A

Q22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi,

45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who

passed in both subjects is

(A) 10 (B) 20

(C) 30 (D) 40

Answer: D

Q23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two

conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of

the following conclusions can logically follow?

Statements :

  1. Some flowers are red.
  2. Some flowers are blue.

Conclusions :

(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.

(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.

(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

Answer: D

Q24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of

the following statements are false?

(i) No students are intelligent.

(ii) Some students are intelligent.

(iii) Some students are not intelligent.

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only

Answer: B

Q25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular

statements and conclude with a universal statement is called

(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning

(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning

Answer: D

 

Q26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this

formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and

a duck between two ducks?

(A) 5 (B) 7

(C) 4 (D) 3

Answer: D

Q27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table

and discussing their trades.

(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.

(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber

(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber

(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C

What are the trades of A and B ?

(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook

(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman

Answer: C

Q28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure

correlation between two variables?

(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency

Distribution

(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank

Correlation

Answer: D

Q29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service

Provider (ISP) ?

(A) MTNL (B) BSNL

(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.

Answer: D

Q30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

(A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 , A – F

(C) 0 – 7, A – F (D) None of these

 

Answer: B

Q31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is

used)

(A) 11110001 (B) 11110000

(C) 10001111 (D) None of these

Answer: A

Q32. 1 GB is equal to

(A) 230 bits (B) 230 bytes

(C) 220 bits (D) 220 bytes

Answer: B

Q33. The set of computer programs that manage the

hardware/software of a computer is called

(A) Compiler system (B) Operation system

(C) Operating system (D) None of these

Answer: C

Q34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for

(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension

(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension

(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

Answer: A

Q35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the

Climate Action Plan of Government of India?

(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion

(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy

Answer: D

Q36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in

drinking water should not exceed

(A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L

 

(C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L

Answer: A

Q37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by

(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar

(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: D

Q38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye

irritation are

(A) SO2 and O3 (B) SO2 and NO2

(C) HCHO and PAN (D) SO2 and SPM

Answer: C

Q39. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be

carcinogenic.

Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: A

Q40. Volcanic eruptions affect

(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere

(B) hydrosphere and biosphere

(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere

(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

Answer: D

Q41. India’s first Defense University is in the State of

(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab

Answer: A

Indian National Defence University (INDU) is a proposed university of

 

defence of the Government of India which will be established at Binola in

Gurgaon, Haryana. The principle proposal was accepted by the union cabinet

on 13 May 2010 and is expected to be functional by 2018-19.

Q42. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only

(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations

(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations

(D) promote research only

Answer: C

Most of the Universities in India conduct teaching/research and examinations.

Q43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission (B) Finance

Commission

(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission

Answer: D

The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which

formulated India’s Five-Year Plans, among other functions. It is located at

Yojana Bhawan, Sansad Marg, New Delhi. Prime Minister Narendra Modi

announced scrapping of Planning Commission. It has been replaced by an

Institution named NITI Aayog, In his first Independence Day speech in 2014.

Q44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.

(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.

(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

Answer: B

Q45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic

character of Indian democracy?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) No State religion

(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions

(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

 

Answer: D

Q46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be

removed by only the President of India?

(A) Chief Minister of a State

(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission

(C) Advocate-General

(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University

Answer: B

Q47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the

class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle represents ‘mortality’, which

one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are

mortal.’ ?

(A) (B) (C)

(D)

Answer: C

Figure C represent the proposition ?All men are mortal.?

The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and

LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table

carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52 :

Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

TVs 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000

LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000

Q48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is

maximum?

(A) 2006 (B) 2007

(C) 2008 (D) 2010

Answer: C

Total production of electronic items in year 2006 = 6000 + 7000 = 13000

 

Total production of electronic items in year 2007 = 9000 + 9400 = 18400

Total production of electronic items in year 2008 = 13000 + 9000 = 22000

Total production of electronic items in year 2009 = 11000 + 10000 = 21000

Total production of electronic items in year 2010 = 8000 + 12000 = 20000

Q49. What is the difference between averages of production of

LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?

(A) 3000 (B) 2867

(C) 3015 (D) 2600

Answer: D

Production of electronic items TVs from 2006 to 2008. = 6000 +9000

+13000= 28000.

Production of electronic items LCDs from 2006 to 2008. = 7000 + 9400 +

9000 = 25400

Average Difference between LCDs and TVs is = 28000- 25400 = 2600

Q50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the

production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?

(A) 2007 (B) 2006

(C) 2009 (D) 2008

Answer: B

Production of LCDs in the year 2010 is 12000.

Production of TVs in the year 2006 is 6000.

Therefore, in 2006 production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the

year 2010.

Q51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008

and 2010 ?

(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4

(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

Answer: B

Production of LCDs in the years 2008 = 9000.

Production of LCDs in the years 2010 = 12000

The Ratio is = 9000 : 12000 = 3 :4

Q52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and

 

2007 ?

(A) 6 : 7 (B) 7 : 6

(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

Answer: C

Q53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning.

It may be because such children

(A) Are gifted (B) Come from rich

families

(C) Show artificial behavior (D) Create indiscipline in the

class

Answer: A

Q54. The most important quality of a good teacher is

(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter

(B) Good communication skills

(C) Concern for students’ welfare

(D) Effective leadership qualities

Answer: A

Q55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of

teacher student relationship?

(A) Very informal and intimate (B) Limited to classroom only

(C) Cordial and respectful (D) Indifferent

Answer: C

Q56. The academic performance of students can be improved if

parents are encouraged to

(A) supervise the work of their wards

(B) arrange for extra tuition

(C) remain unconcerned about it

(D) interact with teachers frequently

Answer: A

Q57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

(A) occasional roars of laughter

 

(B) complete silence

(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue

(D) loud discussion among students

Answer: C

Q58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to

his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should

(A) try to help him (B) ask him not to talk in

those terms

(C) refuse politely and firmly (D) ask him rudely to go away

Answer: C

Q59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe

the meaning of research as a process?

(A) Systematic Activity (B) Objective Observation

(C) Trial and Error (D) Problem Solving

Answer: B

Q60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous

variable?

(A) Family size (B) Intelligence

(C) Height (D) Attitude

Answer: B

Go to home page of NTA UGC JRF NET Previous Question Papers with Key

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *