NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2010
Q1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in
(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude
Q2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of
dengue fever. His research would be classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey (B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study (D) Ethnography
Q3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
(A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling
Q4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
(A) Vocational Interest (B) Professional
(C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all
nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented
the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it
as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and
the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he
became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of
Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful
movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nationwide
action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing
so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied
and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a
people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of
united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village
and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and
hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The
time was ripe for it, of course, and
circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader
is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was
that leader, and he released
many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who
experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that
came over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance
because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could
reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology
functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions
and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not
think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences.
But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass
consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the
Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they
indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and
activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of
personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise
him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her
sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him
by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.
Q5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class
Q6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among
the Indian masses was
(A) Physical (B) Cultural
(C) Technological (D) Psychological
Q7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a
working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement (B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement (D) movement represented by Gandhi
Q8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he
(A) preach morality (B) reach the heart of
(C) see the conflict of classes (D) lead the Indian National
Q9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they
did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses
Q10. The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Q11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of
communication – points are referred to as
(A) Networked media (B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media (D) Multimedia
Network media refers to digital media mainly used in computer networks such
as the Internet. Network media is essentially driven by technological
development, emerging from the internet as a non-centralized medium in the
late nineties, the term has more recently begun to be applied to both the arts
and industry. The following features distinguish Network Media from classical
media, such as broadcast media and the printed press: Network Media is
typically democratic and decentralized. The audience can also be the
contributors. Network Media often requires the involvement of computers as
an input/output device. Network media requires a community to participate and
Q12. The information function of mass communication is described
(A) diffusion (B) publicity
(C) surveillance (D) diversion
Surveillance is the monitoring of the behavior, activities, or other changing
information, usually of people for the purpose of influencing, managing,
directing, or protecting them. This can include observation from a distance by
means of electronic equipment (such as CCTV cameras), or interception of
electronically transmitted information (such as Internet traffic or phone calls);
and it can include simple, relatively no- or low-technology methods such as
human intelligence agents and postal interception. The word surveillance
comes from a French phrase for “watching over” (“sur” means “from above”
and “veiller” means “to watch”)
Q13. An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio (B) Television
(C) Film (D) Newspaper
Q14. In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit (B) abstract
(C) simple (D) cultural
A connotation is a commonly understood cultural or emotional association that
some word or phrase carries, in addition to the word’s or phrase’s explicit or
literal meaning, which is its denotation. A connotation is frequently described
as either positive or negative, with regards to its pleasing or displeasing
Q15. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text (B) internal text
(C) inter-text (D) sub-text
Subtext undertone is any content of a creative work which is not announced
explicitly by the characters or author, but is implicit or becomes something
understood by the observer of the work as the production unfolds. Subtext can
also refer to the thoughts and motives of the characters which are only covered
in an aside. Subtext is content underneath the dialogue. Under dialogue, there
can be conflict, anger, competition, pride, showing off, or other implicit ideas
and emotions. Subtext is the unspoken thoughts and motives of characters?what
they really think and believe.
Q16. In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static (B) dynamic
(C) interactive (D) exploratory
Analog mass communication is the one way process of transferring message to
the receiver, or audience. Here the audience is large so they utilize analog
media which was originally used in audio recording that was analogous to the
count it was recreating. Here the contents can be only linear and static not
Q17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words
ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words
which have a similar relationship:
(A) often : rarely (B) frequently :
(C) constantly : frequently (D) intermittently : casually
Q18. Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 43 (D) 48
Q19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then
PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 41
Q20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the
basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP
(C) OR (D) TV
Q21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
Q22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi,
45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who
passed in both subjects is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
Q23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two
conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of
the following conclusions can logically follow?
- Some flowers are red.
- Some flowers are blue.
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Q24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of
the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only
Q25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular
statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Q26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this
formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and
a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 4 (D) 3
Q27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table
and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B ?
(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman
Q28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure
correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency
(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank
Q29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service
Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Q30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
(A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 , A – F
(C) 0 – 7, A – F (D) None of these
Q31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is
(A) 11110001 (B) 11110000
(C) 10001111 (D) None of these
Q32. 1 GB is equal to
(A) 230 bits (B) 230 bytes
(C) 220 bits (D) 220 bytes
Q33. The set of computer programs that manage the
hardware/software of a computer is called
(A) Compiler system (B) Operation system
(C) Operating system (D) None of these
Q34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Q35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the
Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy
Q36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in
drinking water should not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L
Q37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Q38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye
(A) SO2 and O3 (B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN (D) SO2 and SPM
Q39. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be
Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Q40. Volcanic eruptions affect
(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Q41. India’s first Defense University is in the State of
(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Indian National Defence University (INDU) is a proposed university of
defence of the Government of India which will be established at Binola in
Gurgaon, Haryana. The principle proposal was accepted by the union cabinet
on 13 May 2010 and is expected to be functional by 2018-19.
Q42. Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Most of the Universities in India conduct teaching/research and examinations.
Q43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission (B) Finance
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission
The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which
formulated India’s Five-Year Plans, among other functions. It is located at
Yojana Bhawan, Sansad Marg, New Delhi. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
announced scrapping of Planning Commission. It has been replaced by an
Institution named NITI Aayog, In his first Independence Day speech in 2014.
Q44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Q45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic
character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Q46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be
removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Q47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the
class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle represents ‘mortality’, which
one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are
(A) (B) (C)
Figure C represent the proposition ?All men are mortal.?
The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and
LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table
carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52 :
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
TVs 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000
LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000
Q48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is
(A) 2006 (B) 2007
(C) 2008 (D) 2010
Total production of electronic items in year 2006 = 6000 + 7000 = 13000
Total production of electronic items in year 2007 = 9000 + 9400 = 18400
Total production of electronic items in year 2008 = 13000 + 9000 = 22000
Total production of electronic items in year 2009 = 11000 + 10000 = 21000
Total production of electronic items in year 2010 = 8000 + 12000 = 20000
Q49. What is the difference between averages of production of
LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?
(A) 3000 (B) 2867
(C) 3015 (D) 2600
Production of electronic items TVs from 2006 to 2008. = 6000 +9000
Production of electronic items LCDs from 2006 to 2008. = 7000 + 9400 +
9000 = 25400
Average Difference between LCDs and TVs is = 28000- 25400 = 2600
Q50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the
production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?
(A) 2007 (B) 2006
(C) 2009 (D) 2008
Production of LCDs in the year 2010 is 12000.
Production of TVs in the year 2006 is 6000.
Therefore, in 2006 production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the
Q51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008
and 2010 ?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3
Production of LCDs in the years 2008 = 9000.
Production of LCDs in the years 2010 = 12000
The Ratio is = 9000 : 12000 = 3 :4
Q52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and
(A) 6 : 7 (B) 7 : 6
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
Q53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning.
It may be because such children
(A) Are gifted (B) Come from rich
(C) Show artificial behavior (D) Create indiscipline in the
Q54. The most important quality of a good teacher is
(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students’ welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities
Q55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of
teacher student relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate (B) Limited to classroom only
(C) Cordial and respectful (D) Indifferent
Q56. The academic performance of students can be improved if
parents are encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it
(D) interact with teachers frequently
Q57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Q58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to
his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should
(A) try to help him (B) ask him not to talk in
(C) refuse politely and firmly (D) ask him rudely to go away
Q59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe
the meaning of research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity (B) Objective Observation
(C) Trial and Error (D) Problem Solving
Q60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous
(A) Family size (B) Intelligence
(C) Height (D) Attitude