NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2009
Q1. The University which telecasts interaction educational
programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Q2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day
teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
- Knowledge of technology
- Use of technology in teaching learning
- Knowledge of students’ needs
- Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 2 & 4
Q3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher
Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC (B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE (D) NCTE and IGNOU
(NCTE – National Council of Teacher Education, NAAC – National
Accreditation and Assessment Council)
For achieving professional objectives an MOU was signed on 16th August
2002 by the National Council for Teacher Education and the National
Assessment and Accreditation Council. As follow up activities to the MOU,
the NCTE and the NAAC have developed a manual for self-assessment of
teacher education institutions, constituted a steering group for planning and
monitoring assessment and accreditation of teacher education institutions and
planned the Pune Conference on the theme ‘Self appraisal and Accreditation of
Teacher Education Institutions as a Development-oriented Process’.
The scheme of assessment and accreditation will help institutions to carry out
their strength, weakness, opportunity and threat analysis, and in making their
programmes more attractive to the students and to their potential employers.
The norms and standards evolve with strengthening of the capacity of the
system and commitment for raising the quality of the programme, which will be
revealed by the system of assessment and accreditation. The NCTE is now
looking forward to using assessment and accreditation as an effective
instrument for determination and maintenance of norms and standards for
teacher education programmes.
Q4. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Q5. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
Microteaching is organized practice teaching. The goal is to give instructors
confidence, support, and feedback by letting them try out among friends and
colleagues a short slice of what they plan to do with their students.
Q6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?
(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining
Q7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Q8. The research which is exploring new facts through the
study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
Q9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Q10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation (B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling (D) Content Analysis
Q11. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research (B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research (D) Experimental research
Q12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship
between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.3
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18 :
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in
the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while
editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a
Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of
several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from
service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the
folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and
putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah
Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and
Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after
25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20
November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a
matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say,
sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day
reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and
Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim.
Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy
about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit
spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that
a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian
soldiers in uniform.
Q13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above
(A) Wavell’s Journal (B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials (D) Red Fort Prisoners
Q14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Q15. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association
(D) Indian National Army
Q16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so
much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this
particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Q17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort
and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus and Muslims both
Q18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released
I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Q19. The country which has the distinction of having the two
largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain (B) The United States
(C) Japan (D) China
In 2005, China topped the list in term of total newspaper circulation with 93.5
million a day, India came second with 78.8 million, followed by Japan, with
70.4 million; theUnited States, with 48.3 million; and Germany, with 22.1
Q20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Signs, symbols, codes, colours
Nonverbal communication between people is communication through sending
and receiving wordless cues.
Anything that is not said can be a communication–a gesture, a smile, a wink, a
slouching posture and others.
Q21. Which of the following statements is not connected with
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
Q22. Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Circular (contextual) Discussion is conducted in a circular manner, telling
stories and developing a context around the main point, which is often unstated
because the listener will get the point after I give them all the information.
There is a high reliance on context.
Q23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack
on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut (B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com (D) Twitter
The gunman who survived said that the attackers had used Google Earth to
familiarise themselves with the locations of buildings used in the attacks.
The Mumbai attack perpetrated by Pakistan-based LeT was an example of how
terror outfits use latest available IT tools for their decisive motives, a top US
commander has said, highlighting the role of cyber space in such events. “All
the mission planning (for Mumbai terrorist attack) was done via Google
Earth. There was no investment in technology of (intelligence, surveillance
and reconnaissance) platforms or anything like that
Q24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at
times it is desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on
January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
Q26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a
rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
Suppose length is 10 and bredth is 10 then area is 100,
1 % error then 9.9 *9.9 = 98.01.
Hence 2 % error will be there.
Q27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74 (B) 75
(C) 76 (D) None of the above
2 * 2 = 4 + 1 = 5,
5 * 2 = 10 – 1 = 9,
9 * 2 = 18 +1 = 19,
19*2 = 38 – 1 = 37,
37*2 = 74 + 1= 75.
Q28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then
these questions can be answered in
(A) 20 ways (B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways (D) 1024 ways
If you have 10 questions, and 2 choices per question, then you have 2^10
Q29. What will be the next term in the following?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO (B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ (D) LMRS
in a given series Frist 2 letter is next 2 Alphabets
and next 2 letter is previous 2 Alphabet.
Therefore After HG TS —> JI RQ
Q30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and
paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are
the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290 (B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360 (D) Rs. 440
X,Y,Z used car for 26 hours i.e 7 + 8 + 11 = 26 paid 1040.
Therefore, 1040/26 = 40,
Y used for 8 hours i.e 40 * 8 = 320.
Q31. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
Q32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
Q33. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
Q34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?
(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
Questions from 35 – 36 are based on the following diagram in which there
are three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing
Indian Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50
persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the
number of persons reading the newspapers.
Q35. How many persons would be reading at least two
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 29
From Above figure 12 people read The Hindu and Indian Express. 2 People
read The Hindu and Indian Express and Times of India. 8 People read The
Hindu and Times of India. 5 People read Indian Express and Times of India.
Therefore 12 + 2 + 8 + 5 = 27 people reading at least two newspapers.
Q36. How many persons would be reading almost two
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 2 (D) 48
Only 2 persons read all three newspapers. Total 50 persons were surveyed
Therefore, 50 – 2 = 48 Persons would be reading almost two newspapers.
Q37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular
(periodic) behavior of the variable f(t)?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Graph 3 does not represent regular(periodic) behaviour of the variable f(t)
Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40 :
Q38. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital
X and hospital Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
In year 2005 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 4000 + 12000 = 16000.
In year 2001 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 6000 + 8000 = 14000.
In year 2002 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 4000 + 10000 = 14000.
In year 2002 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 6000 + 8000 = 14000.
In year 2004 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 4000+ 6000 = 10000.
In year 2006 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y
was 2000 + 4000 = 6000.
Q39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of
patients in the two hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000 (B) 6000
(C) 4000 (D) 2000
In year 2005 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals 12000 – 4000 = 8000.
In year 2001 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals 8000 – 6000 = 2000.
In year 2002 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals was 10000 – 4000 = 6000.
In year 2003 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals 8000 – 6000 = 2000.
In year 2004 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals was 6000 – 4000 = 2000.
In year 2006 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals + 4000 – 2000 = 2000.
Q40. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of
patients in hospital X?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
In 2005 year there was 12,000 registration of patients in hospital X. In 2006
year there was only 2,000 registration of patients in hospital X. Therefore
10,000 decrease in registration of patients in hostpital X which is maximum.
Q41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on
primary data collection?
(A) Census of India
(B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Q42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?
(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
Q43. Which of the following is not related to information security
on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval
Q44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?
(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
Q45. bit stands for
(A) binary information term (B) binary digit
(C) binary tree (D) Bivariate
Q46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?
(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack
Q47. Which one of the following is not a network device?
(A) Router (B) Switch
(C) Hub (D) CPU
Q48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code
which can be executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language
Q49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast
(D) Delta regions
Q50. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to
preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak?
(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
Q51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
Q52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Q53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources
can be exploited most economically?
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Q54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
Q55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for
the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
National Knowledge Commission of the Government of India on Higher
Education lays down certain guidelines for the betterment of the system. The
NKC recommendations on higher education were submitted to the Prime
Minister on 29th November 2006. The report focused on the need for
excellence in the system, expansion of the higher education sector in the
country, and providing access to higher education for larger numbers of
Q56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the
business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament 1) Notwithstanding anything in
part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament
shall be transacted in Hindi or in English: Provided that the Chairman of the
Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as
such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately
express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mothertongue
Q57. Which of the following is more interactive and student
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Group Discussion is a modern method of assessing students personality. It is
both a technique and an art and a comprehensive tool to judge the worthiness
of the student and his appropriateness for the job. The term suggests a
discussion among a group of persons. The group will have 8 & 12 members
who will express their views freely,frankly in a friendly manner,on a topic of
current issue. Within a time limit of 20 to 30 minutes,the abilities of the
members of the group is measured.
Q58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
The Indian Parliament is the supreme legislative body in India. Parliament is
composed of: 1. The President of India 2. Lok Sabha (House of the People) 3.
Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The president in his role as head of
legislature has full powers to summon and prorogue either house of Parliament
or to dissolve Lok Sabha. However, in keeping with the Westminster Model of
governance, the president rarely exercises such powers without the advice of
the prime minister.
Q59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed
both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance
Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Education in India is provided by the public sector as well as the private
sector, with control and funding coming from three levels: central, state, and
local. Under various articles of the Indian Constitution, free and compulsory
education is provided as a fundamental right to children between the ages of 6
and 14. To begin with research should be undertaken to assess how far
distance education has actually made education accessible. In India, about
10% of total enrolment in higher education is through distance education. This
10% is of the 6% of the age group 18-23 who join higher education. Further
this 6% enrollment in higher education is actually 60% of those who are
eligible to join higher education.
Q60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into
existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation
and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Refresher course is a training course, usually a short one, that teaches you
about new developments in a particular subject or skill, especially one that you
need for your job. Orientation is the type of activity or subject that a person or
organization seems most interested in and gives most attention.