NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2009

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2009

Q1. The University which telecasts interaction educational

programmes through its own channel is

(A) Osmania University

(B) University of Pune

(C) Annamalai University

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

Answer: D

Q2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day

teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?

  1. Knowledge of technology
  2. Use of technology in teaching learning
  3. Knowledge of students’ needs
  4. Content mastery

(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3

(C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 2 & 4

Answer: C

Q3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher

Education Institutions in India?

(A) NAAC and UGC (B) NCTE and NAAC

(C) UGC and NCTE (D) NCTE and IGNOU

Answer: B

(NCTE – National Council of Teacher Education, NAAC – National

Accreditation and Assessment Council)

For achieving professional objectives an MOU was signed on 16th August

2002 by the National Council for Teacher Education and the National

Assessment and Accreditation Council. As follow up activities to the MOU,

the NCTE and the NAAC have developed a manual for self-assessment of

teacher education institutions, constituted a steering group for planning and

 

monitoring assessment and accreditation of teacher education institutions and

planned the Pune Conference on the theme ‘Self appraisal and Accreditation of

Teacher Education Institutions as a Development-oriented Process’.

The scheme of assessment and accreditation will help institutions to carry out

their strength, weakness, opportunity and threat analysis, and in making their

programmes more attractive to the students and to their potential employers.

The norms and standards evolve with strengthening of the capacity of the

system and commitment for raising the quality of the programme, which will be

revealed by the system of assessment and accreditation. The NCTE is now

looking forward to using assessment and accreditation as an effective

instrument for determination and maintenance of norms and standards for

teacher education programmes.

Q4. The primary duty of the teacher is to

(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students

(B) improve the physical standard of the students

(C) help all round development of the students

(D) imbibe value system in the students

Answer: C

Q5. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice

(B) during the teaching-practice

(C) after the teaching-practice

(D) always

Answer: A

Microteaching is organized practice teaching. The goal is to give instructors

confidence, support, and feedback by letting them try out among friends and

colleagues a short slice of what they plan to do with their students.

Q6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion

(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining

Answer: B

Q7. A null hypothesis is

 

(A) when there is no difference between the variables

(B) the same as research hypothesis

(C) subjective in nature

(D) when there is difference between the variables

Answer: A

Q8. The research which is exploring new facts through the

study of the past is called

(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research

(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis

Answer: B

Q9. Action research is

(A) An applied research

(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems

(C) A longitudinal research

(D) Simulative research

Answer: B

Q10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is

(A) Observation (B) Manipulation

(C) Controlling (D) Content Analysis

Answer: D

Q11. Manipulation is always a part of

(A) Historical research (B) Fundamental research

(C) Descriptive research (D) Experimental research

Answer: D

Q12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship

between creativity and intelligence?

(A) 1.00 (B) 0.6

(C) 0.5 (D) 0.3

Answer: B

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18 :

 

The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in

the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while

editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a

Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of

several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from

service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the

folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and

putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah

Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and

Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after

25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20

November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a

matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say,

sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’

A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day

reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and

Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim.

Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy

about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit

spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that

a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian

soldiers in uniform.

Q13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above

passage?

(A) Wavell’s Journal (B) Role of Muslim League

(C) I.N.A. Trials (D) Red Fort Prisoners

Answer: C

Q14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh

Dhillon symbolises

(A) communal harmony

(B) threat to all religious persons

(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom

(D) British reaction against the natives

Answer: A

 

Q15. I.N.A. stands for

(A) Indian National Assembly

(B) Indian National Association

(C) Inter-national Association

(D) Indian National Army

Answer: D

Q16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so

much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this

particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’

Who sympathises to whom and against whom?

(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British

(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British

(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British

(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled

Answer: D

Q17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort

and criticising Jinnah were the

(A) Hindus (B) Muslims

(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus and Muslims both

Answer: B

Q18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released

I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates

(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity

(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers

(C) Simply to participate in the reception party

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

Q19. The country which has the distinction of having the two

largest circulated newspapers in the world is

(A) Great Britain (B) The United States

(C) Japan (D) China

 

Answer: D

In 2005, China topped the list in term of total newspaper circulation with 93.5

million a day, India came second with 78.8 million, followed by Japan, with

70.4 million; theUnited States, with 48.3 million; and Germany, with 22.1

million.

Q20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours

(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours

(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols

(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs

Answer: A

Signs, symbols, codes, colours

Nonverbal communication between people is communication through sending

and receiving wordless cues.

Anything that is not said can be a communication–a gesture, a smile, a wink, a

slouching posture and others.

Q21. Which of the following statements is not connected with

communication?

(A) Medium is the message.

(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.

(C) Information is power.

(D) Telepathy is technological.

Answer: D

Q22. Communication becomes circular when

(A) the decoder becomes an encoder

(B) the feedback is absent

(C) the source is credible

(D) the channel is clear

Answer: A

Circular (contextual) Discussion is conducted in a circular manner, telling

stories and developing a context around the main point, which is often unstated

because the listener will get the point after I give them all the information.

There is a high reliance on context.

 

Q23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack

on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was

(A) Orkut (B) Facebook

(C) Amazon.com (D) Twitter

Answer: A

The gunman who survived said that the attackers had used Google Earth to

familiarise themselves with the locations of buildings used in the attacks.

The Mumbai attack perpetrated by Pakistan-based LeT was an example of how

terror outfits use latest available IT tools for their decisive motives, a top US

commander has said, highlighting the role of cyber space in such events. “All

the mission planning (for Mumbai terrorist attack) was done via Google

Earth. There was no investment in technology of (intelligence, surveillance

and reconnaissance) platforms or anything like that

Q24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at

times it is desirable to use the projection technology.

Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of

course contents.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: B

Q25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on

January 1, 1996?

(A) Sunday (B) Monday

(C) Wednesday (D) Saturday

Answer: B

Q26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a

rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 4

Answer: B

 

Suppose length is 10 and bredth is 10 then area is 100,

1 % error then 9.9 *9.9 = 98.01.

Hence 2 % error will be there.

Q27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be

(A) 74 (B) 75

(C) 76 (D) None of the above

Answer: B

2 * 2 = 4 + 1 = 5,

5 * 2 = 10 – 1 = 9,

9 * 2 = 18 +1 = 19,

19*2 = 38 – 1 = 37,

37*2 = 74 + 1= 75.

Q28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then

these questions can be answered in

(A) 20 ways (B) 100 ways

(C) 240 ways (D) 1024 ways

Answer: A

If you have 10 questions, and 2 choices per question, then you have 2^10

=1024 possibilities.

Q29. What will be the next term in the following?

DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?

(A) AKPO (B) ABYZ

(C) JIRQ (D) LMRS

Answer: C

in a given series Frist 2 letter is next 2 Alphabets

and next 2 letter is previous 2 Alphabet.

Therefore After HG TS —> JI RQ

Q30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and

paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are

the charges paid by Y?

(A) Rs. 290 (B) Rs. 320

(C) Rs. 360 (D) Rs. 440

 

Answer: B

X,Y,Z used car for 26 hours i.e 7 + 8 + 11 = 26 paid 1040.

Therefore, 1040/26 = 40,

Y used for 8 hours i.e 40 * 8 = 320.

Q31. Deductive argument involves

(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking

(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation

Answer: C

Q32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes

(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world

(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature

Answer: A

Q33. To be critical, thinking must be

(A) practical (B) socially

relevant

(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical

Answer: D

Q34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?

(A) Man is like God

(B) God is great

(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation

(D) Man is a rational being.

Answer: A

Questions from 35 – 36 are based on the following diagram in which there

are three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing

Indian Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50

persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the

number of persons reading the newspapers.

 

Q35. How many persons would be reading at least two

newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25

(C) 27 (D) 29

Answer: C

From Above figure 12 people read The Hindu and Indian Express. 2 People

read The Hindu and Indian Express and Times of India. 8 People read The

Hindu and Times of India. 5 People read Indian Express and Times of India.

Therefore 12 + 2 + 8 + 5 = 27 people reading at least two newspapers.

Q36. How many persons would be reading almost two

newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25

(C) 2 (D) 48

Answer: C

Only 2 persons read all three newspapers. Total 50 persons were surveyed

Therefore, 50 – 2 = 48 Persons would be reading almost two newspapers.

Q37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular

(periodic) behavior of the variable f(t)?

 

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

Answer: C

Graph 3 does not represent regular(periodic) behaviour of the variable f(t)

Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40 :

Q38. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital

X and hospital Y was the maximum?

(A) 2003 (B) 2004

(C) 2005 (D) 2006

Answer: C

In year 2005 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

was 4000 + 12000 = 16000.

In year 2001 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

was 6000 + 8000 = 14000.

In year 2002 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

was 4000 + 10000 = 14000.

In year 2002 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

was 6000 + 8000 = 14000.

In year 2004 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

 

was 4000+ 6000 = 10000.

In year 2006 total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y

was 2000 + 4000 = 6000.

Q39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of

patients in the two hospitals in a year?

(A) 8000 (B) 6000

(C) 4000 (D) 2000

Answer: A

In year 2005 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals 12000 – 4000 = 8000.

In year 2001 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals 8000 – 6000 = 2000.

In year 2002 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals was 10000 – 4000 = 6000.

In year 2003 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals 8000 – 6000 = 2000.

In year 2004 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals was 6000 – 4000 = 2000.

In year 2006 maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two

hospitals + 4000 – 2000 = 2000.

Q40. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of

patients in hospital X?

(A) 2003 (B) 2004

(C) 2005 (D) 2006

Answer: D

In 2005 year there was 12,000 registration of patients in hospital X. In 2006

year there was only 2,000 registration of patients in hospital X. Therefore

10,000 decrease in registration of patients in hostpital X which is maximum.

Q41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on

primary data collection?

(A) Census of India

(B) National Sample Survey

 

(C) Statistical Abstracts of India

(D) National Family Health Survey

Answer: C

Q42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?

(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91

(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2

(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5

(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8

Answer: D

Q43. Which of the following is not related to information security

on the Internet?

(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking

(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval

Answer: D

Q44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte

(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte

Answer: A

Q45. bit stands for

(A) binary information term (B) binary digit

(C) binary tree (D) Bivariate

Theory

Answer: B

Q46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

(A) Array (B) Binary Tree

(C) Queue (D) Stack

Answer: B

Q47. Which one of the following is not a network device?

(A) Router (B) Switch

(C) Hub (D) CPU

 

Answer: D

Q48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code

which can be executed

(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language

(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language

Answer: A

Q49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in

(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan

(B) Coastal regions of India

(C) Malabar Coast

(D) Delta regions

Answer: A

Q50. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to

preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak?

(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest

(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira

Answer: B

Q51. Maximum soot is released from

(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles

(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants

Answer: D

Q52. Surface Ozone is produced from

(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants

(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry

Answer: D

Q53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources

can be exploited most economically?

(A) Solar

(B) Wind

(C) Geo-thermal

 

(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)

Answer: A

Q54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is

(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods

(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes

Answer: B

Q55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for

the establishment of 1500 Universities is to

(A) create more teaching jobs

(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education

(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by

public institutions

(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas

Answer: B

National Knowledge Commission of the Government of India on Higher

Education lays down certain guidelines for the betterment of the system. The

NKC recommendations on higher education were submitted to the Prime

Minister on 29th November 2006. The report focused on the need for

excellence in the system, expansion of the higher education sector in the

country, and providing access to higher education for larger numbers of

students.

Q56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the

business in Parliament shall be transacted in

(A) English only

(B) Hindi only

(C) English and Hindi both

(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution

Answer: B

Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament 1) Notwithstanding anything in

part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament

shall be transacted in Hindi or in English: Provided that the Chairman of the

Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as

such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately

 

express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mothertongue

Q57. Which of the following is more interactive and student

centric?

(A) Seminar (B) Workshop

(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion

Answer: D

Group Discussion is a modern method of assessing students personality. It is

both a technique and an art and a comprehensive tool to judge the worthiness

of the student and his appropriateness for the job. The term suggests a

discussion among a group of persons. The group will have 8 & 12 members

who will express their views freely,frankly in a friendly manner,on a topic of

current issue. Within a time limit of 20 to 30 minutes,the abilities of the

members of the group is measured.

Q58. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President

(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats

Answer: A

The Indian Parliament is the supreme legislative body in India. Parliament is

composed of: 1. The President of India 2. Lok Sabha (House of the People) 3.

Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The president in his role as head of

legislature has full powers to summon and prorogue either house of Parliament

or to dissolve Lok Sabha. However, in keeping with the Westminster Model of

governance, the president rarely exercises such powers without the advice of

the prime minister.

Q59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed

both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance

Education. Distance education contributes

(A) 50% of formal system

(B) 25% of formal system

(C) 10% of the formal system

 

(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while

considering the figures of enrolment in higher education

Answer: B

Education in India is provided by the public sector as well as the private

sector, with control and funding coming from three levels: central, state, and

local. Under various articles of the Indian Constitution, free and compulsory

education is provided as a fundamental right to children between the ages of 6

and 14. To begin with research should be undertaken to assess how far

distance education has actually made education accessible. In India, about

10% of total enrolment in higher education is through distance education. This

10% is of the 6% of the age group 18-23 who join higher education. Further

this 6% enrollment in higher education is actually 60% of those who are

eligible to join higher education.

Q60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into

existence to improve the quality of teachers.

Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation

and refresher courses.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.

Answer: A

Refresher course is a training course, usually a short one, that teaches you

about new developments in a particular subject or skill, especially one that you

need for your job. Orientation is the type of activity or subject that a person or

organization seems most interested in and gives most attention.

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