NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2008

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2008

Q1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher’s success

depends on:

(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others

(B) His professional training and creativity

(C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God

(D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students

Answer: D

Q2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?

(A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude

(B) A loving teacher

(C) A teacher who is disciplined

(D) A teacher who often amuses his students

Answer: A

Q3. A teacher’s most important challenge is:

(A) To make students do their home work

(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable

(C) To maintain discipline in the class room

(D) To prepare the question paper

Answer: B

Q4. Value-education stands for:

(A) making a student healthy (B) making a

student to get a job

(C) inculcation of virtues (D) all-round development of


Answer: C

Q5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in


the class, you would:

(A) pull up the student then and there

(B) talk to the student after the class

(C) ask the student to leave the class

(D) ignore the student

Answer: B

Q6. The research is always –

(A) verifying the old knowledge (B) exploring

new knowledge

(C) filling the gap between knowledge (D) all of these

Answer: D

Q7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field

study to draw more and more clear ideas about the problem is:

(A) Applied research (B) Action research

(C) Experimental research (D) None of these

Answer: C

Q8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous

population, the most suitable sampling method is:

(A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Convenient Sampling (D) Lottery Method

Answer: B

Q9. The process not needed in experimental research is:

(A) Observation (B) Manipulation and replication

(C) Controlling (D) Reference collection

Answer: D

Q10. A research problem is not feasible only when:

(A) it is researchable

(B) it is new and adds something to knowledge

(C) it consists of independent and dependent variables

(D) it has utility and relevance

Answer: C


Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and

a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental

doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According

to a United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-kilometer

deep blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids,

aerosols and other particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already

struggling to cope with a drought, the implication of this are devastating and

further crop failure will amount to a life and death question for many Indians.

The increase in premature deaths will have adverse social and economic

consequences and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our

crumbling health system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both

official and corporate India has always been allergic to any mention of clean

technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll of the assembly line without

proper pollution control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple

technologies, which could make a vital difference to people’s lives and the


However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act,

skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on

climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is set for the usual battle

between the developing world and the West, particularly the Unites States of

America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol,

which would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment

report will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants an accusing finger

towards controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly deny its own

dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas.

Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and

continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries,

who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up

with the West, the USA should take a look at the environmental profligacy,

which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration

to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush’s policies are not exactly

beneficial, not even to America’s interests. We realize that we are all in this


together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise

there will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.

Q11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

(A) Failure of Monsoon (B) Poverty

and Inequality

(C) Slowdown in Industrial Production (D) Mention of Clean


Answer: D

Q12. If the rate of premature death increases it will:

(A) Exert added burden on the crumbling economy

(B) Have adverse social and economic consequences

(C) Make positive effect on our effort to control population

(D) Have less job aspirants in the society

Answer: B

Q13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not

adequately concerned about:

(A) Passenger safety on the roads

(B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner

(C) Pollution control system in the vehicle

(D) Rising cost of the two wheelers

Answer: C

Q14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report

just before the Kyoto meet?

(A) United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A.

(B) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A.

(C) Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment


(D) U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the

forthcoming meet

Answer: D

Q15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental


degradation in South Asia?

(A) Social and economic inequality

(B) Crumbling health care system

(C) Inadequate pollution control system

(D) Radically changing monsoon pattern

Answer: D

Q16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the

interest of:

(A) Local audience (B) Education

(C) Entertainment (D) News

Answer: A

Community radio is a radio service offering a third model of radio

broadcasting in addition to commercial and public broadcasting. Community

stations serve geographic communities and communities of interest. They

broadcast content that is popular and relevant to a local, specific audience but

is often overlooked by commercial or mass-media broadcasters. Community

radio stations are operated, owned, and influenced by the communities they

serve. They are generally nonprofit and provide a mechanism for enabling

individuals, groups, and communities to tell their own stories, to share

experiences and, in a media-rich world, to become creators and contributors of


Q17. Orcut is a part of:

(A) Intra personal Communication (B) Mass Communication

(C) Group Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

Answer: D

Orkut was a social networking website owned and operated by Google. The

service was designed to help users meet new and old friends and maintain

existing relationships. Communication in small groups is interpersonal

communication within groups of between 3 and 20 individuals. Groups

generally work in a context that is both relational and social.

Q18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using

the codes given below:

List-I List – II


(Artists) (Art)

(a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute

(b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song

(c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting

(d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat Natyam


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: A

Q19. Which is not correct in latest communication award?

(A) Salman Rushdie – Booker’s Prize – July 20, 2008

(B) Dilip Sanghavi – Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008

(C) Tapan Sinha – Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008

(D) Gautam Ghosh – Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008

Answer: A

Goutam Ghose is one of the most acclaimed film directors, music director, and

cinematographer of modern India, who works primarily in Bengali cinema.

He won 16 National Awards (excld 2008) besides Filmfare Awards and many

International awards like Silver Balloon Award, Nantes Film Festival,

UNESCO Award, Cannes Film Festival, Grand Prix – Golden Semurg at

Tashkent, UNESCO Award at Venice, Fipresci Awards, Red Cross Award at

Verna Film Festival. Also the only Indian to win the coveted Vittorio Di Sica

Award. Was awarded the Knighthood of the Star of the Italian Solidarity in

July 2006.

Q20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network

system against:

(A) Unauthorized attacks (B) Virus attacks

(C) Data-driven attacks (D) Fire-attacks

Answer: A

In computing, a firewall is a network security system that monitors and

controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined


security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted,

secure internal network and another outside network, such as the Internet, that

is assumed to not be secure or trusted.

Q21. Insert the missing number in the following:

2/3, 4/7, ? , 11/21, 16/31

(A) 10/8 (B) 6/10

(C) 5/10 (D) 7/13

Answer: D

2/3 = 2/2*2-1,

4/7 = 4/4 *2-1,

11/21 = 11/11*2-1, and

16/31 = 16/16*2-1;

Therefore 7/13= 7/7*2-1.

Q22. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN.

How would DISCLOSE be written in that code?



Answer: B

First two characters interchange the position and

Next two characters same again

Next 2 characters interchange the position and

Next 2 is same again.

Therefore DI SC LO SE decode as


Q23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the

basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:

AST : BRU : : NQV : ?



Answer: D

Decode First character with Next Alphabet and

Previous Character with next Alphabet relationship

Therefore Decode N Q V with O P W


Q24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

(A) 2,9,16,23,30 (B) 3,10,17,24

(C) 4,11,18,25 (D) 1,8,15,22,29

Answer: B

Solution:. Let us find the day on 1st April, 1994.

2000 years have 0 odd day.

We have to calculate day on 1st April, 1994.

2000-1994 = 6 Years.

1996 is leap year and have 4 odd days

Ordinary years have 3 odd days.

Therefore 5 * 2 =10 + 3= 13 days minus i.e (1 week + 6 days)

Some codes o remember the months and weeks:

Sunday – 1

Monday – 2

Tuesday – 3

Wednesday – 4

Thursday – 5

Friday – 6

Saturday – 0

Therefore on 1 January 1994 there is Friday

For 1st April 1994

Jan. Feb. March

31 + 29 + 31 = 91 days = (13 weeks + 0 day) .

Total number of odd days = 0 odd days.

:. 1st April 1994 was “Friday”

Thus, on 3rd , 10th , 17th, 24th will be Sunday fall on April 1994.

Q25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence:

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130 (B) 142

(C) 153 (D) 165

Answer: C

Difference 125 and 127 is 2,

then 3, 5, 7, 11, and 12.

Except 12 all are prime numbers so 165 is wrong in series.


Q26. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies

above D, the book E is below A and B is below E. Which is at the


(A) E (B) B

(C) A (D) C

Answer: B

According to discribtion the order is top to bottom is C, D, A, E, B, So B is at


Q27. Logical reasoning is based on:

(A) Truth of involved propositions

(B) Valid relation among the involved propositions

(C) Employment of symbolic language

(D) Employment of ordinary language

Answer: B

Q28. Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms

but different in quality are:

(A) Contradictory (B) Contrary

(C) Subaltern (D) Identical

Answer: C

Q29. The premises of a valid deductive argument:

(A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion

(B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion

(C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion

(D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion

Answer: D

Q30. Syllogistic reasoning is:

(A) Deductive (B) Inductive

(C) Experimental (D) Hypothetical

Answer: A

Study the following Venn diagram and answer the questions 31 to 33 :


Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT

EMPLOYEES are intersecting. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g

and h. Which part best represents the statements in questions 31 to 33?

Q31. Some Graduates are Government employees but not as


(A) h (B) g

(C) f (D) e

Answer: C

The part f best represents the Some Graduates are Government employees but

not as Clerk.

Q32. Clerks who are graduates as well as government employees:

(A) e (B) f

(C) g (D) h

Answer: D

The part h best represents the Clerks who are graduates as well as government


Q33. Some graduates are Clerks but not Government employees.

(A) f (B) g

(C) h (D) e

Answer: D

The part e best represents Some graduates are Clerks but not Government


Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 34 to 35 :


Q34. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the

year 2006?

(A) ab (B) ce

(C) cd (D) ef

Answer: B

The firms ce got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006.

Q35. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the

year 2007?

(A) bdf (B) acf

(C) bcd (D) ace

Answer: A

The firms bdf got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007.

Q36. The accounting software ‘Tally’ was developed by:


(C) Infosys (D) Wipro

Answer: B

Q37. Errors in computer programmes are called:

(A) Follies (B) Mistakes

(C) Bugs (D) Spam

Answer: C

Q38. HTML is basically used to design:

(A) Web-page (B) Web-site

(C) Graphics (D) Tables and Frames

Answer: A

Q39. ‘Micro Processing’ is made for:


(A) Computer (B) Digital System

(C) Calculator (D) Electronic Goods

Answer: A

Q40. Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and

animation is called:

(A) Multiprogramme (B) Multifacet

(C) Multimedia (D) Multiprocess

Answer: C

Q41. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of

hospital wastes is incorrect?

(A) Plastic – 9-12%

(B) Metals – 1-2%

(C) Ceramic – 8-10%

(D) Biodegradable – 35-40%

Answer: A

Q42. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at:

(A) -4° C (B) 0° C

(C) 4° C (D) -2.5° C

Answer: C

Q43. Which one of the following is not associated with


(A) Focus (B) Epicenter

(C) Seismograph (D) Swells

Answer: D

Q44. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region:

(A) Equatorial region (B) Temperate region

(C) Monsoon region (D) Mediterranean region

Answer: A

Q45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from

the codes given below:


List-I List – II

(National Parks) (States)

(a) Periyar (i) Orissa

(b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala

(c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan

(d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: A

Q46. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher

Education is:

(A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony

(B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics,

administration, industry and commerce

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

Answer: C

The Government of India appointed a university Education Commission under

the chairmanship of Dr. Radhakrishnan in November 1948. The Commission

made a number of significant recommendations on various aspects of higher

education and submitted its report in August 1949. In the rapidly changing

contemporary world, universities are undergoing profound changes in their

scope, function and organisation and are in a process of rapid evolution.

Q47. The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

(A) Delhi University

(B) a Deemed University

(C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU

(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

Answer: D

The National Museum in New Delhi is one of the largest museums in India.


Established in 1949, it holds variety of articles ranging from pre-historic era to

modern works of art. It functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of

India. The museum is situated on the corner of Janpath and Maulana Azad


Q48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from

the code given below:

List-I List-II

(Institutions) (Locations)

(a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla

(b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal

(c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad

(d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: D

Q49. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and

ultimately supervised by:

(A) Election Commission of India

(B) State Election Commission

(C) District Collector and District Magistrate

(D) Concerned Returning Officer

Answer: B

1) National Law Institute University (NLIU) is a law school and centre for

research located in Bhopal, India. Established in 1997 by the State of Madhya

Pradesh. 2) The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research

institute based in Shimla, India. It was set up by the Ministry of Education,

Government of India in 1964 and it started functioning from October 20, 1965.

3) National Judicial Academy is an Indian government-funded training institute

primarily for Judicial Officers, working in the Supreme Court and the High

Courts, during their service. Its 63-acre campus is located in the outskirts of


Bhopal. 4) National Savings Institute was set up in 1948 in the name of

national Savings Organization and is governed by the Union Ministry of

Finance under the Department of Economic Affairs, Government of India. It is

mainly focused upon gathering of small savings. The headquarters of the

national savings institute is at Nagpur.

Q50. Which opinion is not correct?

(A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of


(B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body

(C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of

concurrent list

(D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to

research in social sciences

Answer: C

State Election Commission: The power of superintendence, direction and

control of all elections to the local government bodies vest with the State

Election Commissions as envisaged in Article 243K of the Constitution of

India. It was meant to provide constitutional sanction to establish “democracy

at the grassroots level as it is at the state level or national level” The State

Election Commissioner has several unique powers pertaining to the elections

to Local Bodies, which include the following. SEC chairs the Delimitation

Commission which delimits local government constituencies. He has full

powers to conduct local government elections including disciplinary powers

over staff who are on election duty and assigns reserved posts and

constituencies. The SEC can disqualify candidates who do not submit election

accounts, members found guilty of defection and elected representative who do

not convene the Grama Sabha. 2) The Election Commission of India is an

autonomous, established federal authority responsible for administering all the

electoral processes in the Republic of India. Under the supervision of the

commission, free and fair elections have been held in India at regular intervals

as per the principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution. The Election

Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and control of all

elections to the Parliament of India and the state legislatures and of elections to

the office of the President of India and the Vice-President of India

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