NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2005
Q1. Team teaching has the potential to develop:
(A) Competitive spirit
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching
Q2. Which of the following is the most important characteristic
of Open Book Examination system?
(A) Students become serious.
(B) It improves attendance in the classroom.
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.
(D) It compels students to think.
Q3. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages
the use of maximum senses?
(A) Problem-solving method (B) Laboratory method
(C) Self-study method (D) Team teaching method
Q4. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality
Q5. An effective teacher is one who can:
(A) control the class (B) give more
information in less time
(C) motivate students to learn (D) correct the assignments
Q6. One of the following is not a quality of researcher:
(A) Unison with that of which he is in search
(B) He must be of alert mind
(C) Keenness in enquiry
(D) His assertion to outstrip the evidence
Q7. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not
possess one of the following qualities
(A) Appropriateness (B) Measurability
(C) Comparability (D) Flexibility
Q8. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:
(A) historical research (B) participatory
(C) clinical research (D) laboratory research
Q9. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) objectives should be pin-pointed
(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
(C) another word for problem is variable
(D) all the above
Q10. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences,
social sciences and humanities are
(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic
(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
(C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
(D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15
Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation.
This is especially important in generating alternative decision support
solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems
primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence,
individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found
that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once
believed, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This
understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to
fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work
environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by
individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods
for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very
successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach
is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual
methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective
when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there
is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct
an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-toface
session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is
not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases,
computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success.
Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group
to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the
software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although
idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on
the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to
increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an
associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and
phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it
easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software
packages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of
thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer
mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.
Q11. The author, in this passage has focused on
(A) knowledge creation (B) idea-generation
(C) creativity (D) individual traits
Q12. Fostering creativity needs an environment of
(A) decision support systems (B) idea-nurturing
(C) decision support solutions (D) alternative individual factors
Q13. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in
(A) are alternatively effective (B) can be less expensive
(C) do not need a facilitator (D) require a mix of optimal
Q14. Idea-generation software works as if it is a
(A) stimulant (B) knowledge
(C) user-friendly trainer (D) climate creator
Q15. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking
patterns can be won when:
(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods
(B) idea-generation software prompts questions
(C) manual methods are removed
(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software
Q16. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as:
(A) channel noise (B) semantic noise
(C) psychological noise (D) source noise
Q17. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example
(A) time-shifting (B) content reference
(C) mechanical clarity (D) media
Q18. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:
(A) plentiful of information (B) a good amount of statistics
(C) concise proof (D) repetition of facts
Q19. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from
the state of:
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh
Q20. Insert the missing number:
8 24 12 ? 18 54
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 32
Numbers are alternatively multiplied by 3 and divided by 2.
So, the next number = 3 x 12 = 36, 36 ÷ 2 = 18
Q21. January 1, 1995 was Sunday. What day of the week lies on
January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Saturday (D) None of these
Leap year is a year, occurring once every four years, which has 366 days
instead of the normal 365 days. The extra day is added in February, which has
29 days instead of the normal 28 days.
Exception: Century years are NOT leap years UNLESS they can be evenly
divided by 400. For example, 1700, 1800, and 1900 were not leap years, but
1600 and 2000 were.
Counting odd days and calculating day of any particular date:
1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day)
Hence number of odd days in 1 ordinary year = 1.
1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
Hence number of odd days in 1 leap year= 2.
100 years = (76 ordinary years + 24 leap years ) = (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days
= 124 odd days. = (17 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days.
Hence number of odd days in 100 years = 5
Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) = 10 = 3
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) = 15 = 1
Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) = 21 = 0
0 odd days Sunday
1 odd days Monday
2 odd days Tuesday
3 odd days Wednesday
4 odd days Thursday
5 odd days Friday
6 odd days Saturday
Here, 1995 is a normal year. It has one odd day. So the first day of 1996 will
Q22. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is twice the
difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is :
(A) √2 (B) 1/√2
(C) √3 (D) 1/√3
Let the number be x. Its reciprocal is 1/x.
We are given, x+1/x = 2(x-1/x)
⇒ (x2+1)/x = 2(x2-1)/x ⇒ (x2+1) = 2(x2-1) ⇒ -x2 = -3 ⇒ x2 = 3 ⇒ x = √3
Q23. In a certain code, ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. how will
PLEASE will be written in the same code
(A) LPAESE (B) PLAESE
(C) LPAEES (D) PLASEE
Q24. At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will the hands of a clock
be at right angles?
(A) 43 5/11 min. past 5 (B) 43 7/11 min. past 5
(C) 40 min. past 5 (D) 45 min past 5
Q25. Statements : I. All students are ambitious
- All ambitious persons are hard working
Conclusions : (i) All students are hard-working
(ii) All hardly working people are not ambitious
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is
Q26. Statement : Most students are intelligent
Conclusions :(i) Some students are intelligent
(ii) All students are not intelligent
Which of the following is implied?
(A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is
Q27. Statement: Most labourers are poor
Conclusions : (i) Some labourers are poor
(ii) All labourers are not poor
Which of the following is implied?
(A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is
Q28. Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions
(A) the CPU (B) the monitor
(C) network protocols (D) wide area networks
Q29. In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in
the form of:
(A) signals (B) cubes
(C) nodes (D) symbols
Hypermedia database model stores chunks of information in the form
of nodes connected by links established by the user. The nodes can contain
text, graphics, sound, full-motion video, or executable computer programs.
Q30. Communications bandwidth that has the highest capacity and
is used by microwave, cable and fibre optics lines is known as:
(A) hyper-link (B) broadband
(C) bus width (D) carrier wave
Q31. An electronic bill board that has a short text or graphical
advertising message is referred to as:
(A) bulletin (B) strap
(C) bridge line (D) banner
Q32. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a
(A) computer is an electrical machine
(B) computer cannot think at its own
(C) computer processes information error free
(D) computer can hold data for any length of time
Q33. Bitumen is obtained from
(A) Forests and Plants (B) Kerosene oil
(C) Crude oil (D) underground
Bitumen/asphalt/tar is a common binder used in road construction. Bitumen is
obtained from crude oil by the process called fractional distillation. It is
principally obtained as a residual product in petroleum refineries after higher
fractions like gas, petrol, kerosene and diesel, etc., are removed.
Q34. Malaria is caused by:
(A) bacterial infection (B) viral infection
(C) parasitic infection (D) fungal infection
Malaria is a parasitic infection spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The
Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is a single-celled parasite that
multiplies in red blood cells of humans as well as in the mosquito intestine.
Q35. The cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear nights
(without clouds) during winter days. This is because:
(A) clouds radiate heat towards the earth
(B) clouds prevent cold wave from the sky, descend on earth
(C) clouds prevent escaping of the heat radiation from the earth
(D) clouds being at great heights from earth absorb heat from the sun and send
towards the earth
Q36. Largest soil group of India is:
(A) Red soil (B) Black soil
(C) Sandy soil (D) Mountain soil
Eight major soil groups available in India are: Alluvial Soils, Black Soils,
Red Soils, Laterite Soils, Forest and Mountain Soils, Arid and Desert Soils,
Saline and Alkaline Soils, Peaty and organic Soils. Alluvial soils constitute
the largest soil group in India, constituting 80% of the total land surface. An
alluvial soil in India is of three types: Sandy soil, Clayey soil and Loamy soil.
Q37. Main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is
(A) oil spill (B) municipal
(C) industrial effluents (D) aerosols
Q38. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the following
(A) 1-2 KHz (B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz (D) 13-16 KHz
Q39. Which species of chromium is toxic in water:
(A) Cr+2 (B) Cr+3
(C) Cr + 6 (D) Cr is non-toxic element
Q40. Match List – I (Dams) with List – II (River) in the following:
List – I (Dams) List – II (River)
- Bhakra (i) Krishna
- Nagarjunasagar (ii) Damodar
- Panchet (iii) Sutlej
- Hirakud (iv) Bhagirathi
- Tehri (v) Mahanadi
a b c d e
(A) v iii iv ii i
(B) iii i ii v iv
(C) i ii iv iii v
(D) ii iii iv i v
Bhakra Dam is across the Satluj River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar where
the river is forming boundary between Nalgonda district of Telangana and
Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.
Panchet Dam is constructed across the Damodar River at Panchet in Dhanbad
district in the state of Jharkhand.
Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha.
The Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India. It is on the Bhagirathi River near
Tehri in Uttarakhand.
Q41. A negative reaction to a mediated communication is
(A) flak (B) fragmented
(C) passive response (D) non-conformity
Mediated communication refers to communication carried out by the use of
information communication technology, and can be contrasted to face-to-face
Q42. The launch of satellite channel by IGNOU on 26th January
2003 for technological education for the growth and development of
distance education is:
(A) Eklavya channel (B) Gyandarshan channel
(C) Rajrishi channel (D) None of these
Eklavya Technology Channel is a distant learning joint initiative between the
IIT and IGNOU. It was inaugurated on 26 January 2003. The objective of this
Channel is to bring to the audience the actual IIT classrooms virtually at their
door steps. It is a channel dedicated to technical education.
Q43. Match List – I with List-Il and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Locations)
(a) The Indian Council of Historical (i) Shimla
(b) The Indian Institute of Advanced (ii) New Delhi
(c) The Indian Council of Philosophical (iii) Banglore
(d) The Central Institute of Coastal (iv) Lucknow
Engineering for fisheries
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iv iii ii i
Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization situated
in New Delhi under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. The
objectives of ICHR are:
– to bring historians together and provide a forum for exchange of views
– to give a national direction to an objective and scientific writing of history
and to have rational presentation and interpretation of history.
– to promote, accelerate and coordinate research in history with special
emphasis on areas which have not received adequate attention so far.
– to promote and coordinated a balanced distribution of research effort over
– to elicit support and recognition for historical research from all concerned
and ensure the necessary dissemination and use of results.
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute based
in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was established in March
1977 under Department of Higher Education and Ministry of Human Resource
Development. Its Headquarters is at New Delhi and Academic Centre is
Some of the objectives of the Council are:
– Review the progress of research in philosophy on regular basis.
– Co-ordinate research activities in philosophy and encourage interdisciplinary
– Promote collaboration in research between Indian philosophers and
international philosophical institutes.
– Promote teaching and research in Philosophy.
The Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery (CICEF),
formerly known as Pre-Investment Survey of Fishing Harbours (PISFH) is a
premier institution of the Government of India established in January 1968
at Bangalore with its jurisdiction covering the entire Indian coastline for
conducting engineering and economic investigations and preparing the Techno-
Economic Feasibility Reports (TEFRs) for the fishery harbour (FH) projects.
Q44. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to freedom of speech and expression
(D) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto the age of 14
Answer: All are fundamental rights
Q45. The Lok – Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its
normal five year term by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Study the following graph carefully and answer Q.No. 46 to 50 given below
Q46. In which year the value per tin was minimum?
(A) 1995 (B) 1996
(C) 1998 (D) 1999
Q47. What was the difference between the tins exported in 1997
(A) 10 (B) 1000
(C) 100000 (D) 1000000
Q48. What was the approximate percentage increase in export
value from 1995 to 1999?
(A) 350 (B) 330.3
(C) 433.3 (D) None of these
Answer: D (233.3)
Q49. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1995
(A) 75 (B) 50
(C) 25 (D) None of these
Q50. If in 1998, the tins were exported at the same rate per tin as
that in 1997, what would be the value (in crores of rupees) of export
(A) 400 (B) 375
(C) 352 (D) 330