NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2005

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2005

Q1. Team teaching has the potential to develop:

(A) Competitive spirit

(B) Cooperation

(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other

(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching

Answer: C

Q2. Which of the following is the most important characteristic

of Open Book Examination system?

(A) Students become serious.

(B) It improves attendance in the classroom.

(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.

(D) It compels students to think.

Answer: D

Q3. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages

the use of maximum senses?

(A) Problem-solving method (B) Laboratory method

(C) Self-study method (D) Team teaching method

Answer: B

Q4. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Communicator should have fine senses

(B) Communicator should have tolerance power

(C) Communicator should be soft spoken

(D) Communicator should have good personality

Answer: A

Q5. An effective teacher is one who can:

(A) control the class (B) give more

 

information in less time

(C) motivate students to learn (D) correct the assignments

carefully

Answer: C

Q6. One of the following is not a quality of researcher:

(A) Unison with that of which he is in search

(B) He must be of alert mind

(C) Keenness in enquiry

(D) His assertion to outstrip the evidence

Answer: D

Q7. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not

possess one of the following qualities

(A) Appropriateness (B) Measurability

(C) Comparability (D) Flexibility

Answer: D

Q8. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:

(A) historical research (B) participatory

research

(C) clinical research (D) laboratory research

Answer: A

Q9. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) objectives should be pin-pointed

(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form

(C) another word for problem is variable

(D) all the above

Answer: A

Q10. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences,

social sciences and humanities are

(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic

(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience

(C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking

 

(D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions

Answer: B

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15

Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation.

This is especially important in generating alternative decision support

solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems

primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence,

individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found

that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once

believed, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This

understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to

fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work

environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by

individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods

for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very

successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach

is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual

methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective

when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there

is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct

an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-toface

session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is

not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases,

computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success.

Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group

to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the

software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although

idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on

the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to

increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an

associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and

phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it

easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software

packages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of

 

thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer

mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.

Q11. The author, in this passage has focused on

(A) knowledge creation (B) idea-generation

(C) creativity (D) individual traits

Answer: A

Q12. Fostering creativity needs an environment of

(A) decision support systems (B) idea-nurturing

(C) decision support solutions (D) alternative individual factors

Answer: B

Q13. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in

certain occasions,

(A) are alternatively effective (B) can be less expensive

(C) do not need a facilitator (D) require a mix of optimal

participants

Answer: A

Q14. Idea-generation software works as if it is a

(A) stimulant (B) knowledge

package

(C) user-friendly trainer (D) climate creator

Answer: A

Q15. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking

patterns can be won when:

(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods

(B) idea-generation software prompts questions

(C) manual methods are removed

(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software

Answer: B

Q16. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as:

(A) channel noise (B) semantic noise

 

(C) psychological noise (D) source noise

Answer: A

Q17. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example

of:

(A) time-shifting (B) content reference

(C) mechanical clarity (D) media

synchronisation

Answer: D

Q18. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:

(A) plentiful of information (B) a good amount of statistics

(C) concise proof (D) repetition of facts

Answer: A

Q19. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from

the state of:

(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra

(C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: D

Q20. Insert the missing number:

8 24 12 ? 18 54

(A) 26 (B) 24

(C) 36 (D) 32

Answer: C

Explanation:

Numbers are alternatively multiplied by 3 and divided by 2.

So, the next number = 3 x 12 = 36, 36 ÷ 2 = 18

Q21. January 1, 1995 was Sunday. What day of the week lies on

January 1, 1996?

(A) Sunday (B) Monday

(C) Saturday (D) None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Leap year is a year, occurring once every four years, which has 366 days

instead of the normal 365 days. The extra day is added in February, which has

29 days instead of the normal 28 days.

Exception: Century years are NOT leap years UNLESS they can be evenly

divided by 400. For example, 1700, 1800, and 1900 were not leap years, but

1600 and 2000 were.

Counting odd days and calculating day of any particular date:

1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day)

Hence number of odd days in 1 ordinary year = 1.

1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)

Hence number of odd days in 1 leap year= 2.

100 years = (76 ordinary years + 24 leap years ) = (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days

= 124 odd days. = (17 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days.

Hence number of odd days in 100 years = 5

Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) = 10 = 3

Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) = 15 = 1

Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) = 21 = 0

0 odd days Sunday

1 odd days Monday

2 odd days Tuesday

3 odd days Wednesday

4 odd days Thursday

5 odd days Friday

6 odd days Saturday

Here, 1995 is a normal year. It has one odd day. So the first day of 1996 will

be Monday.

Q22. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is twice the

difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is :

(A) √2 (B) 1/√2

(C) √3 (D) 1/√3

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let the number be x. Its reciprocal is 1/x.

We are given, x+1/x = 2(x-1/x)

⇒ (x2+1)/x = 2(x2-1)/x ⇒ (x2+1) = 2(x2-1) ⇒ -x2 = -3 ⇒ x2 = 3 ⇒ x = √3

Q23. In a certain code, ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. how will

PLEASE will be written in the same code

(A) LPAESE (B) PLAESE

(C) LPAEES (D) PLASEE

Answer: B

Q24. At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will the hands of a clock

be at right angles?

(A) 43 5/11 min. past 5 (B) 43 7/11 min. past 5

(C) 40 min. past 5 (D) 45 min past 5

Answer: B

Q25. Statements : I. All students are ambitious

  1. All ambitious persons are hard working

Conclusions : (i) All students are hard-working

(ii) All hardly working people are not ambitious

Which of the following is correct?

(A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is

correct

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is

correct

Answer: C

Q26. Statement : Most students are intelligent

Conclusions :(i) Some students are intelligent

(ii) All students are not intelligent

Which of the following is implied?

(A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is

implied

 

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is

implied

Answer: B

Q27. Statement: Most labourers are poor

Conclusions : (i) Some labourers are poor

(ii) All labourers are not poor

Which of the following is implied?

(A) Only (i) is implied (B) Only (ii) is

implied

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is

implied

Answer: B

Q28. Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions

of:

(A) the CPU (B) the monitor

(C) network protocols (D) wide area networks

Answer: C

Q29. In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in

the form of:

(A) signals (B) cubes

(C) nodes (D) symbols

Answer: C

Explanation:

Hypermedia database model stores chunks of information in the form

of nodes connected by links established by the user. The nodes can contain

text, graphics, sound, full-motion video, or executable computer programs.

Q30. Communications bandwidth that has the highest capacity and

is used by microwave, cable and fibre optics lines is known as:

(A) hyper-link (B) broadband

(C) bus width (D) carrier wave

Answer: B

 

Q31. An electronic bill board that has a short text or graphical

advertising message is referred to as:

(A) bulletin (B) strap

(C) bridge line (D) banner

Answer: D

Q32. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a

computer?

(A) computer is an electrical machine

(B) computer cannot think at its own

(C) computer processes information error free

(D) computer can hold data for any length of time

Answer: A

Q33. Bitumen is obtained from

(A) Forests and Plants (B) Kerosene oil

(C) Crude oil (D) underground

mines

Answer: C

Explanation:

Bitumen/asphalt/tar is a common binder used in road construction. Bitumen is

obtained from crude oil by the process called fractional distillation. It is

principally obtained as a residual product in petroleum refineries after higher

fractions like gas, petrol, kerosene and diesel, etc., are removed.

Q34. Malaria is caused by:

(A) bacterial infection (B) viral infection

(C) parasitic infection (D) fungal infection

Answer: C

Explanation:

Malaria is a parasitic infection spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The

Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is a single-celled parasite that

multiplies in red blood cells of humans as well as in the mosquito intestine.

Q35. The cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear nights

(without clouds) during winter days. This is because:

 

(A) clouds radiate heat towards the earth

(B) clouds prevent cold wave from the sky, descend on earth

(C) clouds prevent escaping of the heat radiation from the earth

(D) clouds being at great heights from earth absorb heat from the sun and send

towards the earth

Answer: C

Q36. Largest soil group of India is:

(A) Red soil (B) Black soil

(C) Sandy soil (D) Mountain soil

Answer: C

Explanation:

Eight major soil groups available in India are: Alluvial Soils, Black Soils,

Red Soils, Laterite Soils, Forest and Mountain Soils, Arid and Desert Soils,

Saline and Alkaline Soils, Peaty and organic Soils. Alluvial soils constitute

the largest soil group in India, constituting 80% of the total land surface. An

alluvial soil in India is of three types: Sandy soil, Clayey soil and Loamy soil.

Q37. Main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is

(A) oil spill (B) municipal

sewage

(C) industrial effluents (D) aerosols

Answer: C

Q38. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the following

frequency ranges:

(A) 1-2 KHz (B) 100-500 Hz

(C) 10-12 KHz (D) 13-16 KHz

Answer: A

Q39. Which species of chromium is toxic in water:

(A) Cr+2 (B) Cr+3

(C) Cr + 6 (D) Cr is non-toxic element

Answer: C

Q40. Match List – I (Dams) with List – II (River) in the following:

 

List – I (Dams) List – II (River)

  1. Bhakra (i) Krishna
  2. Nagarjunasagar (ii) Damodar
  3. Panchet (iii) Sutlej
  4. Hirakud (iv) Bhagirathi
  5. Tehri (v) Mahanadi

a b c d e

(A) v iii iv ii i

(B) iii i ii v iv

(C) i ii iv iii v

(D) ii iii iv i v

Answer: B

Explanation:

Bhakra Dam is across the Satluj River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar where

the river is forming boundary between Nalgonda district of Telangana and

Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.

Panchet Dam is constructed across the Damodar River at Panchet in Dhanbad

district in the state of Jharkhand.

Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha.

The Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India. It is on the Bhagirathi River near

Tehri in Uttarakhand.

Q41. A negative reaction to a mediated communication is

described as:

(A) flak (B) fragmented

feedback

(C) passive response (D) non-conformity

Answer: C

Explanation:

Mediated communication refers to communication carried out by the use of

information communication technology, and can be contrasted to face-to-face

communication.

Q42. The launch of satellite channel by IGNOU on 26th January

2003 for technological education for the growth and development of

 

distance education is:

(A) Eklavya channel (B) Gyandarshan channel

(C) Rajrishi channel (D) None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:

Eklavya Technology Channel is a distant learning joint initiative between the

IIT and IGNOU. It was inaugurated on 26 January 2003. The objective of this

Channel is to bring to the audience the actual IIT classrooms virtually at their

door steps. It is a channel dedicated to technical education.

Q43. Match List – I with List-Il and select the correct answer

from the code given below:

List – I (Institutions) List – II (Locations)

(a) The Indian Council of Historical (i) Shimla

Research (ICHR)

(b) The Indian Institute of Advanced (ii) New Delhi

Studies (IIAS)

(c) The Indian Council of Philosophical (iii) Banglore

Research (ICPR)

(d) The Central Institute of Coastal (iv) Lucknow

Engineering for fisheries

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: A

Explanation:

Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization situated

in New Delhi under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. The

objectives of ICHR are:

– to bring historians together and provide a forum for exchange of views

between them.

– to give a national direction to an objective and scientific writing of history

and to have rational presentation and interpretation of history.

– to promote, accelerate and coordinate research in history with special

 

emphasis on areas which have not received adequate attention so far.

– to promote and coordinated a balanced distribution of research effort over

different areas.

– to elicit support and recognition for historical research from all concerned

and ensure the necessary dissemination and use of results.

The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute based

in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.

Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was established in March

1977 under Department of Higher Education and Ministry of Human Resource

Development. Its Headquarters is at New Delhi and Academic Centre is

at Lucknow.

Some of the objectives of the Council are:

– Review the progress of research in philosophy on regular basis.

– Co-ordinate research activities in philosophy and encourage interdisciplinary

research.

– Promote collaboration in research between Indian philosophers and

international philosophical institutes.

– Promote teaching and research in Philosophy.

The Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery (CICEF),

formerly known as Pre-Investment Survey of Fishing Harbours (PISFH) is a

premier institution of the Government of India established in January 1968

at Bangalore with its jurisdiction covering the entire Indian coastline for

conducting engineering and economic investigations and preparing the Techno-

Economic Feasibility Reports (TEFRs) for the fishery harbour (FH) projects.

Q44. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(A) Right to equality

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right to freedom of speech and expression

(D) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto the age of 14

Answer: All are fundamental rights

Q45. The Lok – Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its

normal five year term by:

(A) The Prime Minister

(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

 

(C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

Study the following graph carefully and answer Q.No. 46 to 50 given below

it:

Q46. In which year the value per tin was minimum?

(A) 1995 (B) 1996

(C) 1998 (D) 1999

Answer: A

Q47. What was the difference between the tins exported in 1997

and 1998?

(A) 10 (B) 1000

(C) 100000 (D) 1000000

Answer: A

Q48. What was the approximate percentage increase in export

value from 1995 to 1999?

(A) 350 (B) 330.3

(C) 433.3 (D) None of these

Answer: D (233.3)

Q49. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1995

to 1996?

(A) 75 (B) 50

(C) 25 (D) None of these

Answer: C

 

Q50. If in 1998, the tins were exported at the same rate per tin as

that in 1997, what would be the value (in crores of rupees) of export

in 1998?

(A) 400 (B) 375

(C) 352 (D) 330

Answer: C

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