NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key December 2013

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key December  Exam held on December 2013

Q1. Which is the main objective of research ?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(C) To get an academic degree

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Answer: D

Q2. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(C) process of randomization

(D) process of analysis

Answer: B

Q3. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(C) philosophical research

(D) historical research

Answer: B

Q4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience

(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience

Answer: B

Q5. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration (B)


(C) Unsignified narration (D) Discourse


Answer: D

Q6. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions (B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions (D) Creations

Answer: B

Q7. In communication, myths have power, but are

(A) uncultural (B) insignificant

(C) imprecise (D) unpreferred

Answer: C

Q8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar (B) API

(C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: C

Q9. Organisational communication can also be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication.

(B) inter-personal communication.

(C) group communication.

(D) mass communication.

Answer: C

Q10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate

terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship

between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(C) Sub-contrary

(D) Sub-alternation

Answer: A

Q11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can

write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya

also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with


Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali


(A) Archana (B) Bulbul

(C) Ananya (D) Krishna

Answer: C

Q12. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false

(D) Neither true nor false

Answer: D

Q13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its

premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(C) Deductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

Answer: C

Q14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow

light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So

those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the

earth is.

What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?

(A) Deductive (B) Astrological

(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical

Answer: C

Q15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn

from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the

conclusion validly drawn.

Premises :

(i) All saints are religious. (major)

(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)


Codes :

(A) All saints are honest.

(B) Some saints are honest.

(C) Some honest persons are religious.

(D) All religious persons are honest.

Answer: C

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs)

in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the

table carefully and answer questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.

Region Number of Foreign

Tourist Arrivals

2007 2008 2009



1686083 1799525 1610086



1007276 1027297 1024469



982428 1051846 982633




303475 332925 348495



352037 355230 318292



171661 215542 201110


FTAs in


5081504 5282603 5108579

Q16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the

total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.


(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) South East Asia

Answer: B

Q17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest

negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) West Asia

Answer: D

Q18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in

terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) South East Asia

(C) East Asia

(D) West Asia

Answer: A

Q19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of

foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India

in 2008.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) East Asia

Answer: C

Q20. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society

(B) Technology society

(C) Mediated society

(D) Non-agricultural society


Answer: A

Q21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication

(B) Military purposes

(C) Personal interaction

(D) Political campaigns

Answer: B

Q22. Internal communication within institutions is done through



Answer: A

Q23. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures

(B) Individual audio

(C) Participatory experience

(D) Preview of new films

Answer: C

Q24. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: D

Q25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which

they appeared. Use the code given below :

(i) Limits to Growth

(ii) Silent Spring

(iii) Our Common Future

(iv) Resourceful Earth

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)


(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: C

Q26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of

desertification ?

(A) Africa

(B) Asia

(C) South America

(D) North America

Answer: A

Q27. “Women are closer to nature than men.” What kind of

perspective is this ?

(A) Realist (B) Essentialist

(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology

Answer: B

Q28. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern

in the removal of tropical forests ?

(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone


(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.

(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and


(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

Answer: A

Q29. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems

of man-environment interaction is one of the following :

(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach

(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach

(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach

(D) Watershed Development Approach

Answer: D

Q30. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide


(CO), in urban areas is

(A) Thermal power sector

(B) Transport sector

(C) Industrial sector

(D) Domestic sector

Answer: B

Q31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the

combustion of

(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen


Answer: B

Q32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in

2013 ?

(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Answer: A

Q33. Which of the following statements are correct about the

National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?

  1. It is an autonomous institution.
  2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions

of higher education.

  1. It is located in Delhi.
  2. It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Q34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes

between two or more States falls under its


(A) Advisory Jurisdiction

(B) Appellate Jurisdiction

(C) Original Jurisdiction

(D) Writ Jurisdiction

Answer: C

Q35. Which of the following statements are correct ?

  1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
  2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
  3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
  4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Q36. Which of the following statements are correct about the

Central Information Commission?

  1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
  2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners

are appointed by the President of India.

  1. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-
  2. It can punish an errant officer.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Q37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The

Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18

States ?


(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

(C) CNN and IBN

(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

Answer: A

Q38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The

code of CHILDREN will be


(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these

Answer: B

Q39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of

one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person

has Rs 38, the number of apples he can buy is

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

Answer: D

Q40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is

the brother of my wife”. The lady is related to the man as

(A) Mother’s sister

(B) Grand mother

(C) Mother-in-law

(D) Sister of Father-in-law

Answer: D

Q41. In this series

6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs

of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?

(A) 4 (B) 5

(C) 6 (D) 8

Answer: C

Q42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The

mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks


of the remaining students is

(A) 85 (B) 60

(C) 70 (D) 65

Answer: A

Q43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three

times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is

(A) 6 years (B) 8 years

(C) 12 years (D) 16 years

Answer: C

Q44. Which of the following is a social network ?

(A) amazon.com

(B) eBay

(C) gmail.com

(D) Twitter

Answer: D

Q45. The population information is called parameter while the

corresponding sample information is known as

(A) Universe

(B) Inference

(C) Sampling design

(D) Statistics

Answer: D

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International

Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property

(ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The intergovernmental

organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable

job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,

and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge

its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices

would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent

investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are


some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have

demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays.

On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital,

has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected

monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that

await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological

Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In

order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up

dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for

conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering

institutes, as has been done in Europe.

Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The

real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts.

Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the

heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The

effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the

quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first

task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development

plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western

countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation

practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the

Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but

is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage

conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building

movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation

could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in


Q46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the

Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.

(B) after training the specialists in the field.

(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.

(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.

Answer: A


Q47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because


(A) increasing number of members to 126.

(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.

(C) consistent investment in conservation.

(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.

Answer: B

Q48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there

would be

(A) Financial support from the Government of India.

(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation


(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and

dissemination of awareness for conservation.

(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.

Answer: C

Q49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is

very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total

number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments,

percentage comes to

(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent

(C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent

Answer: B

Q50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural

heritage ?

(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural


(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.

(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.

(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering


Choose correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)


(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (i), (ii)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: B

Q51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our

cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is

(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

Answer: D

Q52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the

class, a teacher should

(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.

(B) punish those causing disturbance.

(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.

Answer: C

Q53. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.

(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment.

(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand.

(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.

Answer: C

Q54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills

(B) Modification of behaviour

(C) Personal adjustment

(D) Inculcation of knowledge

Answer: B

Q55. Arrange the following teaching process in order :


(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Reteaching

(iv) Formulating instructional objectives

(v) Presentation of instructional materials

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

Answer: D

Q56. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Education Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

Answer: C

Q57. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to

(A) provide information to students.

(B) promote self learning in students.

(C) encourage healthy competition among students.

(D) help students to solve their problems.

Answer: B

Q58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social Scientists

(B) American Philosophers

(C) British Academicians

(D) Italian Political Analysts

Answer: A

Q59. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation,


(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious



(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Covariation

(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Covariation.

Answer: A

Q60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(C) Conceptualisation

(D) Randomisation

Answer: D

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