NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key December 2012

NTA UGC JRF NET previous year question paper and Key Exam held on December 2012

Q1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the


(A) Communis and Communicare

(B) Communist and Commune

(C) Communism and Communalism

(D) Communion and Common sense

Answer: A

Q2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a

type of communication to talk to the masses is known as

(A) Mass line communication (B) Group


(C) Participatory communication (D) Dialogue communication

Answer: A

Q3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(A) Transpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal


(C) Interpersonal communication (D) Face-to-face communication

Answer: A

Q4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is

(A) The Times of India (B) The Indian


(C) The Hindu (D) The Deccan


Answer: A

Q5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas (B) Satyajit Ray

(C) B.R. Chopra (D) Dada Sahib Phalke


Answer: D

Q6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the

principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation

Answer: B

Q7. The missing number in the series :

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is

(A) 240 (B) 220

(C) 280 (D) 210

Answer: D

Q8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be

formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can

be formed is

(A) 80 (B) 100

(C) 90 (D) 110

Answer: B

Q9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of

the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30

members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is

(A) 4 (B) 15/2

(C) 15/4 (D) 6

Answer: C

Q10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then

COUNT will be represented by



Answer: A

Q11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years

ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are


(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15

(C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10

Answer: A

Q12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (ᵡ), C means

divided by (÷) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2


(A) 8 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) 14

Answer: *

Q13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the

right code given below :

Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and

take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep

your wealth in heaven.

Assertion–II : The difference of skin colour of beings is because of the

distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is

the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.


(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.

(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.

(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.

(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

Answer: B

Q14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some

men are not honest’ is contradicted?

(A) All men are honest. (B) Some men are honest.

(C) No men are honest. (D) All of the above.

Answer: A

Q15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true

(B) always false

(C) sometimes true sometimes false


(D) neither true nor false

Answer: D

Q16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to

replace the question mark.

Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?

(A) Customer (B) Path-finder

(C) Perceiver (D) Disciple

Answer: D

Q17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken

to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be

claimed to be true?

  1. All obedient persons are students.
  2. All students are obedient.

III. Some students are obedient.

  1. Some students are not disobedient.

Codes :

(A) I & II (B) II & III

(C) III & IV (D) II & IV

Answer: C

Q18. Choose the right code:

A deductive argument claims that:

  1. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained

in the premises.

  1. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.

III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.

  1. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.

Codes :

(A) I and II (B) I and III

(C) II and III (D) All the above

Answer: A

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to

questions from 19 to 24 :


Government Expenditures on Social


(As percent of total expenditure)



Items 2007

– 08


– 09


– 10


– 11

Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02

(a) Education, sports

& youth affair

4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46

(b) Health & family


2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03

(c) Water supply,

housing, etc.

2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27

(d) Information &


0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22

(e) Welfare to SC/ST


0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63

(f) Labour and


0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25

(g) Social welfare &


0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06

(h) North-eastern


0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75

(i) Other social


1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34




100 100 100 100

Q19. How many activities in the social services are there where

the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures

incurred on the social services in 2008-09?

(A) One (B) Three

(C) Five (D) All the above

Answer: D


Q20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have

increased at the highest rate?

(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09

(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

Answer: B

Q21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in

terms of share of expenditures?

(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST


(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and


Answer: C

Q22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost

equal to the remaining three items in the given years?

(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and


(C) Labour and employment (D) Social

welfare & nutrition

Answer: D

Q23. Which of the following items of social services has registered

the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-


(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST &


(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall

social services

Answer: B

Q24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate

of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?

(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare

(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth



Answer: A

Q25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit (B) Alternate Local Unit

(C) Alternating Logic Unit (D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

Answer: D

Q26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a

circuit board called

(A) Microprocessor (B) System Board

(C) Daughter Board (D) Mother Board

Answer: D

Q27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria

(C) Software (D) None of these

Answer: C

Q28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17)10 = (17)16

(B) (17)10 = (17)8

(C) (17)10 = (10111)2

(D) (17)10 = (10001)2

Answer: D

Q29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is


(A) .pdf (B) .doc

(C) .docx (D) .txt

Answer: C

Q30. ………….. is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download emails

to your computer.




Answer: D

Q31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands (B) Foam Industry

(C) Thermal Power Plants (D) Cement Industry

Answer: A

Q32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury

(C) Cadmium (D) Zinc

Answer: B

Q33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms

(B) number of species

(C) size of living organisms

(D) biomass

Answer: A

Q34. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change (B) Ozone depletion

(C) Hazardous waste (D) Biodiversity

Answer: D

Q35. The second most important source after fossil fuels

contributing to India’s energy needs is

(A) Solar energy (B) Nuclear energy

(C) Hydropower (D) Wind energy

Answer: C

Q36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on

Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.

(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.

(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.


(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

Answer: A

Q37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human

Development Index?

(A) Literacy Rate (B) Gross Enrolment

(C) Sex Ratio (D) Life Expectancy

Answer: C

Q38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.

(C) Australia (D) Canada

Answer: B

Q39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about

the Attorney General of India?

  1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High

Court, to be the Attorney General of India.

  1. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
  2. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the

Rajya Sabha.

  1. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :


(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only

Answer: A

Q40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee

desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as

well as in official notings?

  1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
  2. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3


(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Q41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of

financial emergency?

  1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
  2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of


  1. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be


  1. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

Answer: D

Q42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer

from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)

(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)

(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: A

Q43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only

(B) requisite level of motivation only

(C) opportunities to learn only


(D) desired level of ability and motivation

Answer: D

Q44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric (B) Student centric

(C) General centric (D) Textbook centric

Answer: B

Q45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information

(B) ask students to read books

(C) suggest good reference material

(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it

Answer: D

Q46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(A) Argument (B) Information

(C) Ideas (D) Controversy

Answer: C

Q47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that

(A) punishment in the class should be banned.

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.

(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.

(D) children should be beaten with rods.

Answer: C

Q48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the

classroom, is termed as

(A) Interpersonal (B) Mass


(C) Group communication (D) Face-to-face communication

Answer: C

Q49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a

research journal?


(A) Impact factor (B) h-index

(C) g-index (D) i10-index

Answer: A

Q50. Good ‘research ethics’ means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors

your research.

(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student


(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper

that you are reviewing for an academic journal.

(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one


Answer: B

Q51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on


(A) Convenience sampling (B) Quota sampling

(C) Judgement sampling (D) Stratified sampling

Answer: D

Q52. Which one of the following references is written according to

American Psychological Association (APA) format?

(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science.

New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science.

New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science,

New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science,

New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

Answer: A

Q53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:

  1. Identification of research problem
  2. Listing of research objectives


  1. Collection of data
  2. Methodology
  3. Data analysis
  4. Results and discussion

(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6

(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6

(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

Answer: B

Q54. Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point

for further investigations.

(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.

(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.

(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Answer: D

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :

The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of

urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the

emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of

slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic

chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase in urban

population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000

in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped,

and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of

water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and

transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been

provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such

as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to

improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have

declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers,

millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These

countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services


too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million

citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed

against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and

strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public


Q55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in

developing countries is

(A) Positive (B) Negative

(C) Neutral (D) Unspecified

Answer: B

Q56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in

developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to

(A) 30 million (B) 40 million

(C) 50 million (D) 60 million

Answer: A

Q57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.

(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.

(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.

(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

Answer: A

Q58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator

of urban quality of life?

(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services

(C) Access to social amenities (D) All the above

Answer: A

Q59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge

(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness

(C) Analytical Reasoning

(D) Descriptive Statement


Answer: C

Q60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life

(B) The sufferings of the urban life

(C) The awareness of human progress

(D) The limits to growth

Answer: D

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