NTA UGC JRF NET Previous Question Papers with Key July 2016

NTA UGC JRF NET Previous Question Papers with Key July 2016

Q1. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?

(A) Untreated sewage

(B) Agriculture run-off

(C) Unregulated small scale industries

(D) Religious practices

Answer: A

Q2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be

achieved by

(A) 2022 (B) 2030

(C) 2040 (D) 2050

Answer: B

Q3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass

by the year 2022, is

(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW

(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW

Answer: D

Q4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to

human survival.

Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: A

Q5. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective

 

has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological

disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade

1994-2003)

(A) 25% (B) 50%

(C) 75% (D) 80%

Answer: B

Q6. ………….. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the

computer’s start-up routine.

(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access

Memory)

(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory

Answer: C

Q7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed

by personal computers in order to represent various characters,

numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the

keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for

(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information

(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity

(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Answer: A

Q8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes

and also respiratory tract of human beings.

(A) Particulate matter (B) Oxides of nitrogen

(C) Surface ozone (D) Carbon monoxide

Answer: C

Q9. Which of the following statements about the Indian

political system is/are correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.

 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c) (D) (c) only

Answer: C

Q10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (a), (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: D

Q11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of

Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: C

Q12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of

higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment

and Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.

(c) Inculcating a value system among students.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

 

(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

Q13. The best way for providing value education is through

(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values

(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions

on values

Answer: B

Q14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has

been declared unconstitutional by

(A) The Supreme Court of India

(B) The High Court

(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both

(D) The President of India

Answer: A

Q15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered

helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the

correct alternative from the codes given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: B

Q16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her

lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students

centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets

of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set –

 

II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two

sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative

from the code:

Set – I

Set – II

(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic

requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)

  1. Memory level and non-examples of a point. i. Giving opportunity

for discriminating examples

  1. Understanding level during the presentations. ii. Recording the

important points made

  1. Reflective level items of information.

iii. Asking the students to discuss various

  1. Critically analyzing the

points to be made and discussed.

Codes:

a b c

(A) ii iv i

(B) iii iv ii

(C) ii i iv

(D) i ii iii

Answer: C

Q17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in

respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:

Set – I

Set – II

  1. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and cocognitive

aspects with regularity

  1. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on

a group and certain yardsticks

  1. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning

outcomesevaluation

  1. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests

Codes:

a b c d

 

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) i iii iv ii

Answer: A

Q18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors

contributing to effectiveness of teaching:

List of factors:

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(c) Communication skill of the teacher.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom

transactions.

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)

(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: D

Q19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.

(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.

(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.

(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: D

Q20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote

critical and creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

 

Answer: C

Q21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following

features may be considered critical?

(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.

(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.

(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer: C

Q22. From the following list of statements identify the set which

has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.

(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research

evidences.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from

other researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in

terms of preliminary studies.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer: C

Q23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on

stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the

hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence

stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is

advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the

basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01

level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of

the research hypothesis?

(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.

 

(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.

(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer: B

Q24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors

for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which

research method will be most appropriate for this study?

(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method

(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method

Answer: D

Q25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement

for pursuing research?

(A) Developing a research design

(B) Formulating a research question

(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure

(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer: B

Q26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) preparation of a research paper/article

(B) writing of seminar presentation

(C) a research dissertation

(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: C

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from

27 to 32 :

In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of

Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across

numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg. Machinery,

automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to

South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China

appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still

remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other

products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage

over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labourbased

advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a

huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North

America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated,

low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational

levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore

and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely

to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new

competitors.

In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper

money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were

formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital

flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires

regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations

in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the

capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage

over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to

combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an

effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an

organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.

In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view

organizational knowledge as resource with atleast the same level of power and

importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior

knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the

application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,

pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive

competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider

semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and

common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are

designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools,

and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is

not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.

Q27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in

 

specific markets?

(A) Access to capital (B) Common office buildings

(C) Superior knowledge (D) Common metals

Answer: C

Q28. The passage also mentions about the trend of

(A) Global financial flow

(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry

(C) Regionalisation of capitalists

(D) Organizational incompatibility

Answer: A

Q29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

(A) International commerce (B) Labour-Intensive industries

(C) Capital resource management (D) Knowledge-driven

competitive advantage

Answer: D

Q30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile

industry for decades?

(A) South Korea (B) Japan

(C) Mexico (D) Malaysia

Answer: B

Q31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and

Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?

(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.

(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.

(C) Because of new competitors.

(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer: C

Q32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage

sustainable overtime?

(A) Through regional capital flows.

(B) Through regional interactions among business players.

 

(C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.

(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: D

Q33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by

factors of

(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness

(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance

(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception

(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: A

Q34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective

presence in the classroom.

(A) Use of peer command (B) Making

aggressive statements

(C) Adoption of well-established posture (D) Being authoritarian

Answer: C

Q35. Every communicator has to experience

(A) Manipulated emotions (B) Anticipatory excitement

(C) The issue of homophiles (D) Status dislocation

Answer: B

Q36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where

people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best

suited and normally employed in such a context?

(A) Horizontal communication (B) Vertical communication

(C) Corporate communication (D) Cross communication

Answer: A

Q37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take

cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.

(A) Avoidance of proximity (B) Voice modulation

(C) Repetitive pause (D) Fixed posture

Answer: B

 

Q38. What are the barriers to effective communication?

(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.

(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.

(D) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer: A

Q39. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then

every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively.

How far is he now from his starting point?

(A) 20 m (B) 15 m

(C) 10 m (D) 5 m

Answer: D

Q40. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is

father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as

(A) Grand daughter (B) Daughter

(C) Daughter-in-law (D) Sister

Answer: A

Q41. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ……?……, OPQRST, the

missing term is

(A) JKLMN (B) JMKNL

(C) NMLKJ (D) NMKLJ

Answer: C

Q42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a

way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions?

Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All women are equal to men

(b) Some women are equal to men

(c) Some women are not equal to men

(d) No women are equal to men

Codes:

 

(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d) (D) (a) and (c)

Answer: D

Q43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML.

The code of AMERICANS will be

(A) YKCPGAYLQ (B) BNFSJDBMR

(C) QLYAGPCKY (D) YQKLCYPAG

Answer: A

Q44. In the series

3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ……….., The next term will be

(A) 63 (B) 73

(C) 83 (D) 93

Answer: C

Q45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from

city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets

from city A to C city Rs.173. The fare for city B from city A will be

Rs.

(A) 25 (B) 27

(C) 30 (D) 33

Answer: D

Q46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of

deductive argument with two premises:

(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false

conclusion may be valid.

(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true

conclusion may be valid.

(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: B

Q47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn

from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the

 

conclusions validly drawn.

Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusions: (a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a) only

(B) (a) and (c) only (D) (b) and (c) only

Answer: C

Q48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the

following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(A) Some thieves are poor.

(B) Some thieves are not poor.

(C) No thief is poor.

(D) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: B

Q49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code

stating the nature of the argument involved in it:

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space

is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will

grow.

(A) Astronomical (B) Anthropological

(C) Deductive (D) Analogical

Answer: D

Q50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:

(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(B) It can provide clear method of notation.

(C) It can be either valid or invalid.

(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: C

 

The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two

companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 51-53

based on the data contained in the table:

Year Percentage

Profit(%)

A

Percentage

Profit(%)

B

2011 20 30

2012 35 40

2013 45 35

2014 40 50

2015 25 35

Where, percent (%) Profit = (Income-Expenditure) × 100/Expenditure

Q51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs.9 lakh

in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2:1,

then what was the income of the company A in that year?

(A) Rs.9.2 lakh (B) Rs.8.1 lakh

(C) Rs.7.2 lakh (D) Rs.6.0 lakh

Answer: B

Q52. What is the average percentage profit earned by the

company B?

(A) 35% (B) 42%

(C) 38% (D) 40%

Answer: C

Q53. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company

B is less than that of company A?

(A) 2012 (B) 2013

(C) 2014 (D) 2015

Answer: B

The following table shows the number of people in different age groups

 

who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this

information to answer the questions 54 – 56, to the nearest whole

percentage:

Style of

Music

Number of people

(Age in

Years)

15-20

(Age in

Years)

21-30

(Age in

Years)

31+

Classical 6 4 17

Pop 7 5 5

Rock 6 12 14

Jazz 1 4 11

Blues 2 3 15

Hip-Hop 9 3 4

Ambient 2 2 2

Q54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were

aged 21-30?

(A) 31% (B) 23%

(C) 25% (D) 14%

Answer: C

Q55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates

that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music?

(A) 6% (B) 8%

(C) 14% (D) 12%

Answer: D

Q56. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a

favourite style other than classical music?

(A) 64% (B) 60%

(C) 75% (D) 50%

Answer: C

 

Q57. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once

is a

(A) Worm (B) Virus

(C) Threat (D) Spam

Answer: D

Q58. The statement “the study, design, development,

implementation, support or management of computer-based

information systems, particularly software applications and computer

Hardware” refers to

(A) Information Technology (IT)

(B) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)

(C) Information and Data Technology (IDT)

(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer: A

Q59. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000,

then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

(A) 110011 (B) 110010

(C) 110001 (D) 110100

Answer: A

Q60. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

(A) Burning (B) Zipping

(C) Digitizing (D) Ripping

Answer: A

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